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I'm having some trouble with the following exercise:

Let $\alpha:(a,b)\to \mathbb R^2$ be a regular curve such that, the normal line of the curve at every point intersects in one single point. Prove that $\alpha((a,b))$ is a subset of a circle.

Let $Q\in \mathbb R^2$ be the point of intersection. I'm almost 100% sure that this will be the center of the circle, and we can assume that $Q=(0,0)$ because if it isn't, we can just make a translation $Q\to(0,0)$ and then undo the translation. I tried proving this in the following ways:

  1. Prving that for any $t,t_0\in(a,b)$, $|\alpha(t)|=|\alpha(t_0)|$
  2. Proving that if $|\alpha(t)|<|\alpha(t_0)|$ then there is a point $t<c<t_0$ such that the normal line at $\alpha(c)$ does not intersect $(0,0)$
  3. Proving that the curvature at every point is equal to $1/R$ for some constant $R$

But I wasn't able to do so. Are any of these viable ways of solving this? If so, how?

1 Answers1

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I thought I was able to solve it. I'll leave the answer here instead of deleting the post, so people with the same question can find the answer.

$|\alpha(t)|$ being constant, is the same as saying that $\left<\alpha(t),\alpha(t)\right>$ is constant. $$\frac{d}{dt} \left<\alpha(t),\alpha(t)\right>=2\left<\alpha'(t),\alpha(t)\right>$$

$\alpha'(t)$ and $\alpha(t)$ are orthogonal (This is because, at every point $\alpha(t)$ of the curve, the normal line goes through the origin, meaning that the normal vector at $\alpha(t)$ and the vector $\alpha(t)$ itself are colinear, so $\alpha(t)$ and $\alpha'(t)$ are orthogonal), thus $\frac{d}{dt} \left<\alpha(t),\alpha(t)\right>=0$, meaning that $\left<\alpha(t),\alpha(t)\right>$ is constant, and thus $|\alpha(t)|=R$, for all $t$.

  • You'r doing this in the wrong direction right? IE It's obvious that if $\alpha(t)$ is a constant, then the normal goes through the center of the circle. $\quad$ Your question is "for what curves (not necessarily just circles) satisfy this property?". – Calvin Lin Jun 22 '23 at 16:41
  • No. I proved that $|\alpha(t)|$ is constant. That is the conclusion @CalvinLin – Eduardo Magalhães Jun 22 '23 at 16:43
  • I mean ... where did you use the fact that the normal goes through a single point? – Calvin Lin Jun 22 '23 at 16:44
  • I think I used that in the fact that, if all the normals go through the origin, then the vector $\alpha(t)$ is colinear with the normal vector, meaning that $\left<\alpha(t), \alpha'(t)\right> = 0$ @CalvinLin – Eduardo Magalhães Jun 22 '23 at 16:47
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    Yes, I agree with you. An additional line about that would be helpful (per the first solution in the second link) – Calvin Lin Jun 22 '23 at 16:50
  • You are right. Thank you @CalvinLin – Eduardo Magalhães Jun 22 '23 at 16:53
  • This is correct, but could be written more succinctly and more clearly by reordering the presentation. In addition, I’m pretty sure this question has appeared more than a few times on this site. – Ted Shifrin Jun 23 '23 at 05:33