I have the sequence of functions $f_n = (1+x^n)^{1/n}$ for $0 \leq x < \infty$.
I can easily see that (as $n$ approaches $\infty$) it is pointwise converging to $1$ for $x\leq 1$ and to $x$ for $x>1$.
I'm trying to figure out whether or not it is converging to these functions uniformly or not, using Dini's theorem I was able to show that it is almost uniformly convergent - but so far have not been able to establish proper uniform convergence, or its non-existence.
My intuition leans towards it not uniformly converging, but I haven't been able to find a proper sequence to contradict it.
Would appreciate any hints.
Thanks a million!