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I have to prove the following

$$\left(\frac{k}{e} \right)^{k-1} \leq (k-1)!$$

without using $(1+\frac{1}{k})^k < e, \forall k \in \mathbb{N}$. I've tried using the following argument:

$$e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!} , \forall x\in \mathbb{R}$$

therefore $$e^x > \frac{x^n}{n!}, \forall x > 0 \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$$

this also means $$e^{k-1} > \frac{(k-1)^{k-1}}{(k-1)!} $$

transposing the inequality gives us: $$ \left(\frac{(k-1)}{e} \right)^{k-1}< (k-1)!$$

thats almost, what i want to prove.. is there a way to use this trick and finish the prove correctly ?

Martin R
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  • Welcome to MSE. Your question is phrased as an isolated problem, without any further information or context. This does not match many users' quality standards, so it may attract downvotes, or be closed. To prevent that, please [edit] the question. This will help you recognize and resolve the issues. Concretely: please provide context, and include your work and thoughts on the problem. These changes can help in formulating more appropriate answers. – José Carlos Santos Jun 28 '23 at 08:43
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    What have you tried? – Itoz Darbien Jun 28 '23 at 08:46
  • i tried using $e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}$ . With that we get $e^{k-1} < \frac{k^{k-1}}{k!}$, but that doesen't proof this exact inequality. Now I'm getting out of ideas –  Jun 28 '23 at 08:50
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    Isn't the inequality false for $k=2$? – the co author Jun 28 '23 at 09:01
  • The inequality is obviously true for $k \ge 3$ since $\left(\frac{e}{k} \right)^{k-1} \lt 1 \lt (k-1)!$ – Henry Jun 28 '23 at 09:03
  • thank you for your comments. I mixed up the fraction and edited the question. –  Jun 28 '23 at 09:12

2 Answers2

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For $k=1$, we have $$ (k-1)!=1=\left(\frac ke\right)^{k-1}\tag1 $$

For $k\ge2$, $$ \begin{align} e^k &\gt\color{#C00}{\overbrace{\frac{k^{k+1}}{(k+1)!}}^{\frac{k^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}\frac k{k+1}}}+\overbrace{\quad\frac{k^k}{k!}\quad}^\frac{k^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}+\frac{k^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}+\color{#090}{\overbrace{\frac{k^{k-2}}{(k-2)!}}^{\frac{k^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}\frac{k-1}k}}\tag{2a}\\ &=\left(2+\color{#C00}{\frac k{k+1}}+\color{#090}{\frac{k-1}k}\right)\frac{k^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}\tag{2b}\\ &\gt e\frac{k^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}\tag{2c} \end{align} $$ Explanation:
$\text{(2a):}$ use four terms from the Taylor series
$\text{(2b):}$ gather factors
$\text{(2c):}$ the terms in the parentheses are $\ge\frac{19}6\gt e$

Thus, for $k\ge1$, $$ (k-1)!\ge\left(\frac ke\right)^{k-1}\tag3 $$

robjohn
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Sketch $x\geq 3$:

We show :

$$\ln\left(\left(x-1\right)!\right)-\left(x-1\right)\ln\left(\frac{x}{e}\right)\geq 0$$

For that we rewrite the inequality as :

$$\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}\ln\left(n-i\right)-\left(n-1\right)\ln\left(\frac{n}{e}\right)\geq 0$$

Now we add a term as :

$$\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}(k-i)/(k-i)\cdot\ln\left(n-i\right)\right)-\left(n-1\right)\ln\left(\frac{n}{e}\right)\geq 0$$

So the function :

$$f(i)=(k-i)\ln(n-i)$$ is convex for $2n\geq k+i$ so we can apply weighted Jensen's inequality using bound for the harmonic sum .

So we are done .