Disprove the statement:
Let $f$ be a real-valued function with domain $(-∞,∞).$ Then $∀x,y {∈} (-∞,∞), \,f(x) = f(y)$ implies that $x = y.$
I am not looking for an answer to this problem, but I'm stuck on what it's asking me to disprove.
You're being asked to disprove
- for every real-valued function $f$ on $\mathbb R,$ for every $(x,y) {∈} \mathbb R^2,$ $$f(x) = f(y)\implies x = y.$$
So, just construct a single real-valued function on $\mathbb R$ and exhibit a single element of $\mathbb R^2$ that violates the given implication, that is, such that the implication's left side is true but its right side is false. For example, find an $f$ such that $f(2)=f(5).$