I was reading an interesting book on evaluating some integrals(Inside Interesting Integrals by Paul J. Nahin) and came across the Fresnel integrals: $\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x^2) \text{ dx}= \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin(x^2) \text{ dx}= \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}$. These were very interesting to me; I know of course that $\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos{x} \text{ dx}$ does not converge, and it was amazing to me that making the $x$ squared will allow the integral to converge. So, I wanted to play around with the integrand a bit more.
I opened Wolfram Alpha and tried evaluating integrals of the form $\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x^p) \text{ dx}$ for integer $p>1$. After a bit it stopped giving me exact answers(I don't have WA pro so computation time is limited), but I could deduce that $\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x^p) \text{ dx} = \cos(\frac{\pi}{2 p}) \Gamma(\frac{p+1}{p})$ and $\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin(x^p) \text{ dx} = \sin(\frac{\pi}{2 p}) \Gamma(\frac{p+1}{p})$ for $p>1$, apparently not just for integer $p$ but real $p$ as well. I have checked this through a few(50 or so total) numerical approximations, so I am reasonably confident in it.
This is amazing to me! I'm wondering if there is a proof; I've finished Calc 2 and just started Calc 3, so anything involving elliptic integrals or something is out of the question for me to understand(though if you have a solution involving something higher, please still provide it). I know what the Gamma function is, and that it pops up a lot when evaluating integrals, but I have no idea why it appears here(my guess is some kind of reduction formula involving $\cos(x^p)$ and $\cos(x^{p-1})$, but I really have no clue). I've searched online and looking at some integral tables, but I'm either searching the wrong things or there is really just no reference to this integral formula. I was actually surprised by this, it seems super fundamental and I imagine many other integral formulas could be based off of this for an integral table or something similar. Anyway, if someone can provide a proof or some kind of intuitive explanation, please let me know!
Sidenote: WA might give slightly different forms for the integrals, sometimes writing cosines as exact expressions and $\Gamma(x)$ as $(x-1) \Gamma (x-1)$, but the results should be the same as expected.