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"A function which takes on infinite values throughout an interval is at least once continuous throughout a sub interval of that interval"

Prove or disprove the above statement<<<

Tom Lynd
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1 Answers1

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[EDIT: OP has deleted the comment which referred to the function taking on every real value between its minimum and its maximum, so perhaps this answer does not speak to OP's concerns. I leave it as a simple example of a nowhere-continuous bijection of a closed interval with itself. I also take the opportunity to correct a typo.]

From the comments, it seems the question is, if a function on an interval takes on every real value between its minimum and its maximum, must it be continuous somewhere on the interval?

A simple counterexample goes as follows:

Define $f:[0,1]\to[0,1]$ by $f(x)=x$ if $x$ is rational; $f(x)=x+(1/2)$ is $x$ is irrational and less than $1/2$; $f(x)=x-(1/2)$ if $x$ is irrational and exceeds $1/2$.

Gerry Myerson
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  • No,the function takes just infinite values between its max and min,not every possible real number> – Tom Lynd Aug 25 '13 at 07:25
  • For the 18th and last time, the function does NOT take on "infinite values". It MAY take on infinitely many values, but every blessed one of those values is finite. AND my example takes on infinitely many values, doesn't it? But it still isn't continuous anywhere, is it? So, it answers your question, doesn't it? – Gerry Myerson Aug 25 '13 at 07:58