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Let matrices $X $ and $ Y$ satisfy the equality $Z^2+AZ+B=0$ where $A , B$ are real matrices and $\det(X - Y)\ne 0$ Prove

  1. $ \operatorname{tr} X + \operatorname{tr} Y = - \operatorname{tr} A$
  2. $\det X \det Y = \det B $

Proof 1) $(X+Y)(X-Y)+XY-YX+A(X-Y)=0\Rightarrow X+Y+(XY-YX)(X-Y)^{-1}+A=0$

As $ \operatorname{tr} PQ= \operatorname{tr} QP$ we have $\operatorname{tr} (XY-YX)(X-Y)^{-1}=0$ entailing the result.

  1. We have $(X+A)X=-B$ and $(Y+A)Y=-B$. The result follows if $\det XY=0.$

If $\det X\ne 0$ and $\det Y\ne0$ then $X-Y=B(Y^{-1}-X^{-1})$ Assuming that $X$ and $Y$ are permutable, we can easily obtain the result.

Is it possible to achieve this result without such an assumption, or is it necessary to look for a counterexample?

Minz
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  • if $XY=YX$ multiply the equation $X-Y=B(Y^{-1}-X^{-1})$ by $XY$ and cut down $X-Y$.
  • – Minz Jul 29 '23 at 13:32
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    (1) The equality $\operatorname{tr}(XYZ)=\operatorname{tr}(YXZ)$ does not hold in general. Consider e.g. $X=\pmatrix{0&1\ 0&0},,Y=\pmatrix{1&0\ 0&0}$ and $Z=\pmatrix{0&0\ 0&1}$. The trace equality does hold when $Z=(X-Y)^{-1}$, but you have yet to justify that. (2) OK, thanks. I haven’t never seen such usage of word. In linear algebra, we say that $X$ and $Y$ “commute”. – user1551 Jul 29 '23 at 15:20
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    Also, you don‘t actually need $X$ and $Y$ to commute. Since $X-Y=B(Y^{-1}-X^{-1})=BX^{-1}(X-Y)Y^{-1}$, the result follows if you take determinants on both sides. – user1551 Jul 29 '23 at 15:26