Let: $x,y,z \ge 0$ and $xy+yz+zx=1$. Prove that: $$\frac{1}{x+y}+\frac{1}{y+z}+\frac{1}{z+x} \ge \frac{5}{2}$$
Here is the solution:
Square both sides and add $(xy+yz+zx)$ in LHS, we have: $$(xy+yz+zx)(\frac{1}{x+y}+\frac{1}{y+z}+\frac{1}{z+x})^2 \ge \frac{25}{4}$$
which can be rewritten as:$$(\sum_{sym}^{}x^5y-\sum_{sym}^{}x^4y^2)+3(\sum_{sym}^{}x^5y-\sum_{sym}^{}x^3y^3)+(\sum_{sym}^{}x^4yz+14\sum_{sym}^{}x^3y^2z+38x^2y^2z^2)\ge 0$$ which is true by Murihead!
My questions are how can they knew how to square both sides and add $(xy+yz+zx)$ to $LHS$, and in the last line of solution, how can they knew when to use Murihead. I'm so confuse when to use Murihead, when to use Weighted AM-GM or Rearrangement inequality. Thank you for all your helps!