I am studying lambda calculus from "Lectures on the Curry-Howard isomorphism" and I want to clear out a small detail in a proof using induction on the definition of alpha conversion.
Alpha conversion is defined as:
The relation $=_{\alpha}$ ($\alpha$-conversion) is the least (i.e. smallest) transitive and reflexive relation on $\Lambda^{-}$ satisfying the following.
If $y \notin FV ( M )$ and $M [ x := y ]$ is defined then $\lambda x M =_{\alpha} \lambda y . M [ x := y ]$.
If $M =_{\alpha} N$ then $\lambda x M =_{\alpha} \lambda x N$, for all variables $x$.
If $M =_{\alpha} N$ then $MZ =_{\alpha} NZ$.
If $M =_{\alpha} N$ then $ZM =_{\alpha} ZN$.
After that there is the following lemma:
If $M=_a N$ then $FV(M)=FV(N)$. (a-equivalent lambda terms have the same free variables)
Using induction on the definition, the proof starts with the case of $M=_a N$ that follows from transitivity. i.e. $M=_aL$ and $L=_aN$.
THE QUESTION: What is the induction hypothesis in this step? Is it that "there exists a lambda term $L$ s.t. $M=_aL$ and $L=_aN$ and $FV(M)=FV(L)$, $FV(L)=FV(N)$? Is it something else that I am not able to find?