Let $\,f:[0,1]\to\Bbb R\,$ be a continuous function on $\,[0,1]\,.$ Find the limit $\,\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\sum_{k=0}^n\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}f(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]\!.$
Since $\,f\,$ is continuous on $\,[0,1]\,,\,$ there exists $\,M>0\,$ such that $\,\left|f(x)\right|\leqslant M\;\;$ for any $\,x\in[0,1]\,.\quad\color{blue}{(1)}$
Moreover, for any $\;n\in\Bbb N\,\land\,n\geqslant3\,,\,$ it results that
$\displaystyle\left|\big(n+1\big)\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}f(x)\,\mathrm dx\right|\leqslant$
$\displaystyle\leqslant\big(n+1\big)\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\left|\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}f(x)\,\mathrm dx\right|\leqslant$
$\displaystyle\leqslant\big(n+1\big)\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}\big|f(x)\big|\,\mathrm dx\underset{\overbrace{\;\text{ by applying }(1)\;}}{\leqslant}$
$\displaystyle\leqslant\big(n+1\big)M\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}\,\mathrm dx=$
$\displaystyle=\big(n+1\big)M\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\mathrm{Beta}\big(k+1,n-k+1\big)=$
$\displaystyle=\big(n+1\big)M\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac{k!\big(n-k\big)!}{\big(n+1\big)!}=M\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac1{\binom nk}\underset{\overbrace{\,\text{because }\binom nk\geqslant\binom n2\\\,\text{for any}\,2\leqslant k\leqslant n-2\,}}{\leqslant}$
$\leqslant\!M\!\!\left[\dfrac1{\binom n1}+\dfrac{n-3}{\binom n2}+\dfrac1{\binom n{n-1}}\right]\!=M\!\left[\dfrac2n+\dfrac{2(n-3)}{n(n-1)}\right]\!<\dfrac{4M}n\,.$
Consequently, by applying Squeeze theorem, it follows that
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}f(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]\!=0\;.\quad\color{blue}{(2)}$
Now, we will prove that
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1x^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]\!=f(1)\;.$
For any $\,\varepsilon>0\,,\,$ since $\,\lim\limits_{x\to1}f(x)=f(1)\,,\,$ there exists $\,x_\varepsilon\in(0,1)\,$ such that $\;\big|f(x)-f(1)\big|<\dfrac\varepsilon2\;\;\;\forall x\in\left[x_\varepsilon,1\right].\quad\color{blue}{(3)}$
Moreover,
$\big|f(x)-f(1)\big|\leqslant\big|f(x)\big|+\big|f(1)\big|\leqslant2M\;\;\;\forall x\in\left[0,x_\varepsilon\right].\quad\color{blue}{(4)}$
Let $\;n_\varepsilon=\max\left\{1,\left\lfloor\dfrac{\ln\varepsilon-\ln(4M)}{\ln x_\varepsilon}\right\rfloor\!-\!1\right\}\in\Bbb N\,.$
For any $\,n\in\Bbb N\,\land\,n>n_\varepsilon\,$ it results that
$2Mx_\varepsilon^{n+1}\leqslant2Mx_\varepsilon^{n_\varepsilon+2}\leqslant2Mx_\varepsilon^{\left\lfloor\frac{\ln\varepsilon-\ln(4M)}{\ln x_\varepsilon}\right\rfloor+1}<2Mx_\varepsilon^{\frac{\ln\varepsilon-\ln(4M)}{\ln x_\varepsilon}}=$
$=2Mx_\varepsilon^{\log_{x_\varepsilon}\left(\frac{\varepsilon}{4M}\right)}=2M\dfrac{\varepsilon}{4M}=\dfrac{\varepsilon}2\;\;,\quad\color{blue}{(5)}$
$\displaystyle\left|\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1x^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx-f(1)\right|=$
$\displaystyle=\left|\int_0^1(n+1)x^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx-\int_0^1(n+1)x^nf(1)\mathrm\,dx\right|=$
$\displaystyle=\left|\int_0^1(n+1)x^n\big[f(x)-f(1)\big]\,\mathrm dx\right|\leqslant$
$\displaystyle\leqslant\int_0^1(n+1)x^n\big|f(x)-f(1)\big|\,\mathrm dx=$
$\displaystyle=\!\int_0^{x_\varepsilon}\!\!\!(n\!+\!1)x^n\big|f(x)\!-\!f(1)\big|\,\mathrm dx+\!\!\int_{x_\varepsilon}^1\!(n\!+\!1)x^n\big|f(x)\!-\!f(1)\big|\,\mathrm dx<$
$\displaystyle\underset{\overbrace{(3)\text{ and }(4)}}{<}2M\!\!\int_0^{x_\varepsilon}\!\!\!(n\!+\!1)x^n\mathrm dx+\dfrac{\varepsilon}2\!\int_{x_\varepsilon}^1\!(n\!+\!1)x^n\mathrm dx=$
$=2M\big[x^{n+1}\big]_0^{x_\varepsilon}+\dfrac{\varepsilon}2\big[x^{n+1}\big]_{x_\varepsilon}^1=$
$=2Mx_{\varepsilon}^{n+1}+\dfrac{\varepsilon}2\left(1-x_{\varepsilon}^{n+1}\right)\underset{\overbrace{\text{ by applying }(5)\;}}{<}\dfrac\varepsilon2+\dfrac\varepsilon2=\varepsilon\,.$
So we have proved that for any $\,\varepsilon>0\,,\,$ there exists $\,n_{\varepsilon}\in\Bbb N\,$ such that for any $\,n\in\Bbb N\,\land\,n>n_\varepsilon\,$ it results that
$\displaystyle\left|\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1x^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx-f(1)\right|<\varepsilon\;\,,\;\;\;\;$ that is ,
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1x^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]\!=f(1)\;.\quad\color{blue}{(6)}$
Analogously, we can prove that
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1x^ng(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]\!=g(1)\qquad\color{blue}{(7)}$
for any continuous function $\,g\,$ on $\,[0,1]\,.$
In particular, if $\,g:[0,1]\to\Bbb R\,$ is the continuous function defined as $\,g(t)=f(1-t)\;$ for any $\,t\in[0,1]\,,\,$ by applying the change of variable $\,t=1-x\,$ in the following definite integral, we get that
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1(1-x)^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]=$
$\displaystyle=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1t^nf(1-t)\,\mathrm dt\right]\!=$
$\displaystyle=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1t^ng(t)\,\mathrm dt\right]\!=g(1)=f(1-1)=f(0)\;.$
Consequently ,
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\int_0^1(1-x)^nf(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]=f(0)\;.\quad\color{blue}{(8)}$
From $\,(8)\,,\,$ $(2)\,$ and $\,(6)\,,\,$ it follows that
$\displaystyle\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\!\left[\big(n+1\big)\!\sum_{k=0}^n\int_0^1x^k(1-x)^{n-k}f(x)\,\mathrm dx\right]=f(0)+f(1)\,.$