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I was learning basic statistics and I read a proof that the standard deviation is always less than or equal to the range. I don't understand how range can ever be equal to the standard deviation. I could only think of one case: when all data points have the same value. Is there any other case possible in which the equality holds?

  • Please spell out words. Acronyms make it harder for everyone to read, as does the unnecessary use of symbols. – Xander Henderson Sep 05 '23 at 12:36
  • The standard deviation of a distribution will not exceed half the range and achieves that when the distribution is two equally probable values. The so-called "sample standard deviation with Bessel's correction" cannot exceed the range of the sample times $\frac1{\sqrt 2}\approx 0.70711 $ and achieves that with a sample size of $2$ – Henry Sep 05 '23 at 16:09

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No, there is not.

The proof is a little boring and technical, if you care. Let $r$ denote the range, and assume $r>0$ (to rule out the case where all data points have the same value). Let $a$ denote the smallest value that can occur. Then $a+r$ must be the largest value that can occur (since the range is $r$), so all values are in the interval $[a,a+r]$. Let $\mu$ denote the mean. We must have $a \le \mu \le a+r$. It follows there must exist some value $x_0$ such that $|x_0-\mu| < r$ and that $x_0$ can occur in this distribution (in particular, if $a<\mu$, you can take $x_0=a+r$; if $\mu<a+r$, you can take $x_0=a$; since $r>0$, at least one of these two cases must hold). Moreover, for all other values of $x$, we have $|x-\mu| \le r$ (since $x \in [a,a+r]$ and $\mu \in [a,a+r]$). Therefore,

$$\mathbb{E}[|x-\mu|^2] < r,$$

since it is an average of numbers, one of which is $<r$ and all of the others of which are $\le r$. This expectation is exactly the S.D., so it proves that the S.D. is $<r$. That completes the proof that, apart from the one case you identified, the S.D. is always strictly less than the range.

D.W.
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  • Ok,thank you for clarifying, but I have to admit your proof was a little tough for me to follow,although that's because I am a beginner. For example, the part where E symbol is used does it denote SD,because it doesn't make sense to me otherwise.did I understand it wrong? Also how did you conclude that X⁰ must exist such that |X°-μ| <SD and that X° will be in the distribution? Is it because SD is an root-mean-square average of deviations and since it is an average so there must be some X° for which deviation of X°,i.e.,|X°-μ| will be less than this average,i.e,.SD? Am I wrong? – Mr.Curious Sep 05 '23 at 06:59
  • Ok, now I know that the bold E symbol stands for expected value of a variable – Mr.Curious Sep 05 '23 at 12:11
  • @Mr.Curious, that's OK, you can ignore the proof and just take it on faith that your understanding is correct and there is no other case where the range equals the standard deviation, if you wish. I have edited my answer to try to provide a bit more elaboration on the question you raised. I also had a typo ($\sigma$ instead of $r$) which I fixed, and which was probably very confusing -- I apologize for my error. – D.W. Sep 05 '23 at 15:41
  • yes the proof is a little easier to understand but I guess it's still hard for someone like me,who has yet to taste college level maths,to digest it,so I think it's just that I am not at that level. So I will take heed of your advice and take it as a fact. Once again, thank you very much for answering me. – Mr.Curious Sep 05 '23 at 17:37