I accidentally find this property, $\sum_{x=1}^{X} \sum_{y=1}^Y {Y \choose y} \times (x-1)^{Y-y} = X^Y$, when doing a brain-teaser. I only tried up to y=3, but it seems to be true for all X and Y. Can anyone give an induction prove? (or any direct prove is also appreciated)
Edit: It is ${Y \choose y}$ sorry!