Solve the following logarithmic inequality: $\frac{2\log_a x}{1+2 \log_a x} < \log_2^2 x$ assuming that $a \in (0,1) \cup (1,+\infty)$ and $\lvert 2\log_a x \rvert < 1$
The answer should look like this:
for $a \in (0,1)$ : $x \in \left(1, \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}\right)$
for $a > 1$ : $x \in \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}, 1\right)$
For well-defined $(a,\ x)$ and $\begin{cases}\log_ax=t\\\log_a2=p\end{cases}$ the given inequality is equivalent. $$\frac{2t}{1+2t}<\left(\frac{t}{p}\right)^2$$ $$\frac{2p^2t}{1+2t}-\frac{t^2(1+2t)}{1+2t}<0$$ $$-t(2t^2+t-2p^2)(1+2t)<0$$ $$-4t\left(t-\frac{-1-\sqrt{1+16p^2}}{4}\right)\left(t-\frac{-1+\sqrt{1+16p^2}}{4}\right)\left(t+\frac{1}{2}\right)<0$$
$$t_2=\frac{-1-\sqrt{1+16p^2}}{4}<t_4=-{1\over2}<t_1=0<t_3=\frac{-1+\sqrt{1+16p^2}}{4}$$ Thus, the inequality is satisfied for: $$t\in(-\infty;t_2)\cup(t_4;t_1)\cup(t_3;+\infty)$$
What to do next to get this result, or maybe you have some other way?