Forget about the $\sin$ and $\cos$ functions, are there possibly some brilliant way to show that $$\left(x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-\frac{x^7}{7!}+\cdots\right)^2+ \left(1-\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}-\frac{x^6}{6!}+\cdots\right)^2=1$$
?
I've thought for a long time, without making much progress. Can someone help me? Thanks.