I started studying RL recently using ashwin rao book "RL for finance".I'm studying Markov processes for now. At some point the author highlights the possibility of transforming by adding the time in the status rendering the process homogeneous. I must say i dont reall understand how is it making it non dependant on time. Ok the time is in the state but still the transitions are dependant on time.
Note that the arguments to P in the above specification are devoid of the time index t (hence, the term Time-Homogeneous which means “time-invariant”). Moreover, note that a Markov Process that is not time-homogeneous can be converted to a Time-Homogeneous Markov Process by augmenting all states with the time index t. This means if the original state space of a Markov Process that is not time-homogeneous is S, then the state space of the corresponding Time-Homogeneous Markov Process is Z≥0 × S (where Z≥0 denotes the domain of the time index). This is because each time step has its own unique set of (augmented) states, which means the entire set of states in Z≥0 × S can be covered by time-invariant transition probabilities, thus qualifying as a Time-Homogeneous Markov Process.
Can someone please explain it to me ? THanks