In this Multivariate Calculus course, in the partial derivatives part, the lecturer solves differentiates this function:
$$ f(x, y, z) = \sin(x)e^{yz^2} $$
He lists the partial derivatives: $$ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \cos(x)e^{yz^2};\\ \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = \sin(x)e^{yz^2}z^2;\\ \frac{\partial f}{\partial z} = \sin(x)e^{yz^2}2yz; $$
I understand how these are calculated. Then (as part of teaching the "total derivative" concept), he introduces the fact that $x$, $y$, $z$ are themselves a function of another parameter $t$, such that: $$ x = t-1;\\ y = t^2;\\ z=1/t; $$ Aside of simply substituting each term in the original expression with $t$ and then differentiating w.r.t $t$, he goes on (here) to differentiate each of the partial derivatives (but now, w.r.t $t$):
$$ \dfrac{dx}{dt} = 1;\\ \dfrac{dy}{dt} = 2t;\\ \dfrac{dz}{dt} = -t^{-2}; $$
I don't understand the final part. For example, how did we get to $\dfrac{dx}{dt} = 1$? If we take the partial derivative $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \cos(x)e^{yz^2}$, substitute $x$ with $t-1$ and differentiate w.r.t $t$, shouldn't we get $\frac{dx}{dt} = -\sin(t-1)e^{yz^2}$?