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Let $R$ be a ring (not necessarily commutative), is it true that for every $x\neq 0$, $xR=Rx$?.

What I've tried so far was:

Let $y\in Rx$. Then $y=rx$ for every $r\neq 0,~r\in R$. Then $xrx\in xR$.

$\therefore yr\in xR.$

I'm not sure, but couldn't find a counterxample.

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