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I wanted to find a proof that row rank = column rank using orthogonality, and I came across the following proof:

Let $A \in \Bbb R^{m \times n}$ be a matrix with row rank $r(A)=r$. Let $\{ x_1,x_2,...,x_r \}$ be a basis of the row space. We shall prove that $\{ Ax_1,Ax_2,...,Ax_r \}$ is a linearly independent set. Let $a_1,a_2,...,a_r \in \Bbb R$ be scalars such that $a_1Ax_1+a_2Ax_2+...+a_rAx_r=0$. It follows that $A(a_1x_1+a_2x_2+...+a_rx_r)=0$. Denote $v=a_1x_1+a_2x_2+...+a_rx_r$. We see that $Av=0$ and that $v$ is a linear combination of basis vectors of the row space. Hence $v \in KerA \cap RowA$. Since the kernel and the row space are orthogonal, their intersection is trivial, hence $v=0$, and $a_1x_1+a_2x_2+...+a_rx_r=0$ and since $\{ x_1,x_2,...,x_r \}$ is linearly independent we obtain the desired result $a_1=a_2=...=a_r=0$.

We have proven $\{ Ax_1,Ax_2,...,Ax_r \}$ is a linearly independent set, and every vector in that set is a linear combination of the columns of $A$, hence the column space of $A$ has at the least dimension $r$, or $r(A^T) \geq r(A)$. Now, repeat the whole argument for the matrix $A^T$, and we'll get $r((A^T)^T)=r(A) \geq r(A^T)$. Finally, $r(A)=r(A^T)$.

This proof is great for real matrices, but obviously it won't work for complex matrices, since the standard dot product is not a valid inner product in complex spaces (for example, the norm of the vector $(1,i)$ in the standard inner product space is $0$, but that is impossible) and subsequently, the kernel of $A$ is not orthogonal to the column space of the transpose of $A$, but rather, the kernel is orthogonal to the column space of the Hermitian transpose of $A$. My question is, is there a way to prove nevertheless that the column rank is equal to the row rank using orthogonality in complex spaces?

  • Despite appearances, orthogonality is not important here. The same proof written without using the word orthogonal works over the complex numbers. – Deane Oct 24 '23 at 13:09
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    How? If you consider a $2$ by $2$ matrix whose rows are spanned by ${(1,i)}$, then we get that the vector $(1,i)$ is in the row space and in the kernel, but it is not the $0$ vector, which is contradictory to what I wrote in the proof. – TreasureGhost Oct 24 '23 at 15:00
  • Yes, you're right. To me, that the ow rank (dimension of domain minus dimension of kernel) equals the column rank (dimension of image) has nothing to do with orthogonality. In particular, it holds for any abstract vector space, even if there is no inner or hermitian product. Given a linear map $L: V \rightarrow W$, choose a basis $(e_1, \dots, e_k)$ of the kernel, and extend it to a basis $(e_1, \dots, e_m)$ of $V$. It's easy to show that $(L(e_{k+1}, \dots, L(e_m))$ is a basis of the image. This implies the rank nullity theorem, which what you want. – Deane Oct 24 '23 at 15:39

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Here is a proof that will work for complex spaces over $ \Bbb C$, where the inner product is defined as $\langle x,y \rangle=x \cdot \overline y$ (so $x$ is dotted with the complex conjugate of $y$)

Let $A \in \Bbb C^{m \times n}$ be a matrix with row rank $r(A)=r$. Let $B_1=\{ x_1,x_2,...,x_r \}$ be a basis of the row space. We shall prove that $\{ A\overline{x_1},A\overline{x_2},...,A\overline{x_r} \}$ is a linearly independent set. Let $a_1,a_2,...,a_r \in \Bbb C$ be scalars such that $a_1A\overline{x_1}+a_2A\overline{x_2}+...+a_rA\overline{x_r}=0$. Denote $\overline{b_1}=a_1,\overline{b_2}=a_2,...,\overline{b_r}=a_r$. It follows that $A(\overline{b_1x_1}+\overline{b_2x_2}+...+\overline{b_rx_r})=0$. And therefore $A(\overline{b_1x_1+b_2x_2+...+b_rx_r})=0$. Denote $v=b_1x_1+b_2x_2+...+b_rx_r$. We see that $A\overline v=0$. By definition of matrix multiplication, and by the definition of the inner product, every row of $A$ is orthogonal to $v$, and every linear combination of the rows is also orthogonal to $v$, so $v$ is orthogonal to itself (because by its definition we get that $v$ is a linear combination of basis vectors of the row space), and hence $v=0$. By definition of basis we get that $b_1=b_2=...=b_r=0$, and hence $a_1=a_2=...=a_r=0$. We've proven $\{ A\overline{x_1},A\overline{x_2},...,A\overline{x_r} \}$ is a linearly independent set, and it's not hard to see that it consists of linear combinations of the columns of $A$.

The continuation of the proof is the same as in the question. (This proof might have some redundant claims, but the idea is coherent)

  • Please note that I edited the answer so that it proves the theorem for any complex space over $\Bbb C$, not just complex spaces over $\Bbb R$ – TreasureGhost Oct 24 '23 at 18:07