I am solving for the intercepts of a rational function. It has a root of (0,0) which would be an x and a y intercept, however there is also a hole at this location. If the function is undefined (because of a hole) at an intercept, does the intercept not count?
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2If it's undefined there then it has no intercept there. – Ethan Bolker Oct 29 '23 at 14:15
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How does it "have a root of $(0,0)$" if it has a "hole" there? To be a root requires $y$ to be $0$. But to have a hole means that $y$ is undefined. $y$ cannot be both $0$ and undefined. – Paul Sinclair Oct 30 '23 at 17:03