Let $f(x,y,z,w)$ be a real function with continuous partial derivatives, satisfying the following partial differential equation $$ 2\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right) =f\left(\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x\partial x}\right) $$
What is the solution of that equation?
Edit: We can assume that $\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x\partial x}=\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y\partial x}$
My attempt: I noticed that $$ (\ast)\quad \frac{\partial(1/f)}{\partial x}=-\frac{1}{f^2}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} $$ so $$ \frac{\partial^2(1/f)}{\partial x\partial y}=\frac{2}{f^3}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right)\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)-\frac{1}{f^2}\frac{\partial^2f}{\partial x\partial y}= \frac{1}{f^3}\left[2\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right)\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)-f\frac{\partial^2f}{\partial x\partial y}\right] $$ Therefore, $(\ast)$ is satisfied iff $$ \frac{\partial^2(1/f)}{\partial x\partial y}=0 $$ What next?