I saw a YouTube video where the presenter claimed that there were solutions to the equation $1^x = 2.$
To summarize their argument:
Clearly, $1^x = 1$ for all real $x.$ However, there may be complex solutions.
$$
\begin{align}
&1 = e^{2k\pi i} \\
&1^x = \left(e^{2k\pi i}\right)^x \\
&e^{2kx\pi i} = 2
\end{align}
$$
Taking the log of both sides.
$$
\begin{align}
2kx\pi i &= \log 2\\
x & = \frac {\log 2}{2ki} = -\frac {i\log 2}{2k}
\end{align}
$$
My intuition says that this must be wrong, but I am having a hard time articulating why.
Let's start here:
$$
1^x = \left(e^{2k\pi i}\right)^x
$$
This statement is true for integer values of $x,$ but taking $x = \frac 12$ and $k = 1$ we get $1^\frac 12 = -1$
Annother sticking point in my intuition is that $|r^z| = |r|^{\mathrm{Re}(z)}$ for real $r,$ and complex $z.$ And the work above contradicts that.
At the same time, I am fine with the statement $1 = 2^{\frac {2\pi i}{\log 2}},$ which would imply a solution to $2^{\frac 1x} = 1$
I think that the precise answer is that the complex logarithm is a subtle and devious operator. The complex logarithm is multi-valued and as such we must be careful in choosing which branch we are applying. But, I still don't feel like this is squarely hitting the point.
Could someone help me put some rigor and formality around my misgivings? Or, if I am just wrong, clarify where I am wrong.