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I need to prove that given $f,g:A \to A$ ($A$ is some set), if $g$ is not onto and $f$ is one to one $\Rightarrow \ \ f \circ g$ is not onto.

First of all I don't understand why do I need to know that $f$ is one-to-one, I tried finding a counter example for the case that $f$ is not one to one but couldn't.

And I'm having a hard time realizing intuitively why is that true let alone formalize a mathematical proof, so I'd really appreciate some help :)

Red
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1 Answers1

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If $ f \circ g$ is onto, but $g$ is not, consider $f(a)$ for $a$ not in the image of $g$. All values in $A$ are taken by the values of $f$ on the image of $g$ and nothing is left for $a$ if $f$ is one-to-one.

lhf
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