I need to prove that given $f,g:A \to A$ ($A$ is some set), if $g$ is not onto and $f$ is one to one $\Rightarrow \ \ f \circ g$ is not onto.
First of all I don't understand why do I need to know that $f$ is one-to-one, I tried finding a counter example for the case that $f$ is not one to one but couldn't.
And I'm having a hard time realizing intuitively why is that true let alone formalize a mathematical proof, so I'd really appreciate some help :)