While studying these notes about two-level constructions in analytical combinatorics I noticed that the following is mentioned
$\mathcal{R}^{(2)}= 1\,\text{Seq}(1)\,2\,\text{Seq}(1+2)\cup 2\,\text{Seq}(2)\,1\,\text{Seq}(1+2)$. And that equality is not clear to me, I understand the following:
$\mathcal{R}^{(2)}=\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_1\cup\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_2$, where $\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_1$ are surjections of the form $\phi_1:\{1\}\to\{1,2\}$, and $\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_2$ are surjections of the form $\phi_2:\{1,2\}\to\{1,2\}$.
Then $\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_1=\{(1)(2)\}$, and $\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_2=\{(12)(21)\}$ (I'm right?)
Then $\mathcal{R}^{(2)}=\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_1\cup\mathcal{R}^{(2)}_2=\{(1)(2)\}\cup \{(12)(21)\}= \{(1)(2)(12)(21)\} $
So, my question becomes the following,assuming my analysis is correct, why $ \{(1)(2)(12)(21)\}= 1\,\text{Seq}(1)\,2\,\text{Seq}(1+2)\cup 2\,\text{Seq}(2)\,1\,\text{Seq}(1+2)$?