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If we have an infinite dimensional normed space $X$ and a finite dimensional one $Y$, is $X \bigoplus Y$ isomorphic to $X$?

I cannot conclude if it is true not get a counterexample.

I was thinking that if $dim(Y) = n$ and we take $x_1, \cdots, x_n \in X$ linearly independent, then $Y'=\text{span}\{x_1, \cdots, x_n\}$ it is clear that $Y$ is isomorphic to $Y'$ and, as $Y'$ is finite dimensional, it is complemented in $X$, so there exists a closed subset $Z$ of $X$ such that $X=Z \bigoplus Y'$. Then, if $Z$ is isomorphic to $X$ the result follows, but I don't know if that's true.

I've also tried to prove it using algebraic bases to construct an algebraic isomorphism between the spaces, but I cannot prove that is bicontinuous.

Eparoh
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  • If $X \subset C[a,b]$ consisting only of even degree polynomials and $Y \subset C[a,b]$ consisting of $x$. You cannot construct an isomorphism. – user8469759 Nov 13 '23 at 10:37

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