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This is a true or false question as review for an upcoming exam. My professor states that this integral holds true using symmetry and the fact that sin(y) is an odd function. Can someone please explain how this holds true using those two concepts? I can't wrap my head around how I could ever use symmetry and sin(y) being an odd function to answer this.

T OR F:

$$ \int_{-1}^{1}\int_0^{1} e^{x^2+y^2}sin(y)dxdy=0$$

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Imagine plotting the odd function and doing the area to the axis. The part beneath has negative area and the part above has positive area.

if it's done between $1$ and $-1$ the areas cancel to make $0$.
Here is a plot of the odd function $y=\sin(x)$ from Desmos, to illustrate

enter image description here

The more complicated equation still has the 'odd' symmetry, negative values have the opposite sign of the positive values