I recently found out that the average gap between a value and the mean of that value for a normal distribution can be expressed as: $\sqrt{\frac{2}\pi}\sigma$ or about $0.7978...\sigma$ where $\sigma$ is the standard deviation.
see: Expected value of normal distribution given that distribution is positive
which I thought was very interesting. This proof was done using the formula for the normal distribution function - $f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}}$ and integrating.
This proof I believe, would imply that:
$\sqrt{\frac{2}\pi}\sqrt{\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x})^2}{n}} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n} |x_i - \bar{x}|}{n}$
Assuming n goes to infinity and the observations are normally distributed.
Is there a way to prove this fact algebraically without bringing in the normal distribution function? Seems weird when written like that to understand where the pi comes from.
Thanks for the help!