Could someone tell me why this might a wrong solution? The solution looked nothing like mine
Let $t_n$ be the partial sums of $\sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{a_n}{1+ a_n}$
$$t_n = (1-\frac{1}{1+a_1}) + (1-\frac{1}{1+a_2}) + \dots + (1-\frac{1}{1+a_n}) \\ \geq (1-\frac{1}{1+a_n}) + (1-\frac{1}{1+a_n}) + \dots + (1-\frac{1}{1+a_n}) \\ \geq n - \frac{n}{1+a_n} \geq n$$
So $n \to \infty$ shows that the partial sums are unbounded
$$ n - \frac{n}{1+a_n} \leq n$$
– Stefan4024 Aug 31 '13 at 23:33