Here is an exercise V.1.11.12.1 in J. Kollar's book Rational curves on algebraic varieties:
Let $X$ be a smooth projective variety of dimension $n$ over an algebraically closed field $k$. Let $\mathscr{L}$ be a line bundle on $X$ such that $\mathscr{L}^{n+1}\cong \omega_X^{-1}$ and $h^0(X,\mathscr{L})\geq n+1$. Then $X\cong\mathbb{P}^n_k$ and $\mathscr{L}\cong\mathscr{O}(1)$. (Hint: induction on $n$)
Actually before this exercise he proved a classical result: if $X$ is a smooth Fano variety with index $n+1$, then $X\cong\mathbb{P}^n$. So this exercise is some kind of generalization of it. It seems right but I don't know why or why not? If it is not right, are there some counter-examples?
Here is what I thought (has been edited follows Cranium Clamp's remark): We can prove it under three assumptions.
We know this is right for $n=1$. We assume that this is right for $n-1$. Now consider $n\geq 2$. Pick $D\in|\mathscr{L}|$ (I don't know why this is smooth. But I will assume ($\star$) it is), then by adjunction formula we have $$\omega_D\cong\omega_X|_D\otimes\mathscr{L}|_D\cong \mathscr{L}^n|_D.$$ Moreover, by $0\to\mathscr{O}_X\to\mathscr{L}\to\mathscr{L}|_D\to0$, we have $h^0(D,\mathscr{L}|_D)\geq n$. Hence by induction $(D,\mathscr{L}|_D)\cong(\mathbb{P}^{n-1},\mathscr{O}(1))$. Hence we have $\int_Xc_1(\mathscr{L})^n=1$. As $0\to\mathscr{O}_X\to\mathscr{L}\to\mathscr{L}|_D\to0$, we find that $\mathscr{L}$ is base-point free if $H^1(X,\mathscr{O}_X)=0$ ($\star$$\star$). Hence this induce $\phi:X\to\mathbb{P}^n$. Hence $1=\int_Xc_1(\mathscr{L})^n=\deg\phi\deg\mathrm{Im}\phi$. Hence $\phi$ is of degree $1$ which is also surjective. Hence if we assume ($\star$$\star$$\star$) $\mathscr{L}$ is ample, then $f$ is also finite. Hence $f$ is an isomorphism. Hence $X\cong\mathbb{P}^n_k$ and $\mathscr{L}\cong\mathscr{O}(1)$.
So I solved this problem with some assumptions:
Assumption ($\star$): $\mathscr{L}$ has smooth divisor.
It seems a hard condition... We can not use Bertini's theorem here. Is there some Bertini-type theorem can slove this?
Assumption ($\star$$\star$): $H^1(X,\mathscr{O}_X)=0$.
If $\mathrm{char}k=0$ and $\mathscr{L}$ is ample, then this follows from Kodaira vanishing theorem.
Assumption ($\star$$\star$$\star$): $\mathscr{L}$ is ample in this case.
As here we already proved (using the first assumption) that $\mathscr{L}$ is base-point free, then by Nakai-Moishizon theorem, to show $\mathscr{L}$ is ample we just need to show $\mathscr{L}\cdot C>0$ for any integral curves $C\subset X$. But how?
So if we let $\mathscr{L}$ is very ample at beginning, these two assumptions will hold automatically. But unfortunately we have no this beautiful assumption.
Thank you for your help!!!