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So, I am trying to solve this question: James and John are playing football/soccer on a sunny Saturday. They are practicing their penalties and play 3 games.

In each game, they either score or they miss. How many possible ways can their games turn out. Now, I was stuck between 2 answers which are $2^3 $ and $4^3$. After trying to write it out, I realized that $2^3 $ is obviously wrong and the answer is $4^3$. But that is just an aside.

Now, the second part is my issue. As you know, in football/soccer, you get a point for each goal you score. Now, the question is asking that James and John have been playing this exact game for $100 $ Saturdays (weird right, I know) and within that time, they have discovered that James scores about $70\% $ of the time while John scores about $ 60\%$ of the time. Knowing that, how many points do I think they have racked up over this period.

I interpreted this as a round-about way of asking the Expected Value but with a $100$ games here, I don't know where to start. I calculated that the following probabilities:

$$P(\text{they both fail}) = 0.12$$

$$P(\text{James scores, John fails}) = 0.28$$

$$P(\text{James fails, John Scores}) = 0.18$$

$$P(\text{they both score}) = 0.42$$

Now, from here, I would simply multiply the probabilities by how many goals are in each situation but there have to be $4^{100}$ of them and I can't even count that high. Any help please?

Greg Martin
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    Do you know of the binomial distribution? – insipidintegrator Nov 29 '23 at 08:44
  • @insipidintegrator I know it is in the syllabus but we have not gotten to it yet – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 08:46
  • Ah ok, the problem will be extremely simplified if we use it. I'll write an answer which introduces the distribution slowly and then solve the question. As an aside, do you know what random variables are? – insipidintegrator Nov 29 '23 at 08:47
  • @insipidintegrator Yes, I do know about random variables and I thought about splitting it into pieces using that (I.E Calculate the expected for each probability I did above and them add then multiply it by 100 to simulate me adding it 100 times but that just leaves me at a 100 goals and I had a bad feeling that 10 goals would be terribly wrong) – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 08:52
  • What does "best of 3" mean in the context of penalties? I'm used to "best of 3" having a meaning for 2-player games that always have a winner and a loser, but for penalties I don't really know what it could mean. – Stef Nov 29 '23 at 08:53
  • @Stef To be honest, we were also confused so our lecturer said we should ignore that part and just treat each game individually. I should probably edit that out – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 08:55
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    I think what @Stef is trying to ask is whether they play all three attempts at scoring even when one player scores twice and the other player doesn't score any. Say John is up 2-0, will they play the 3rd game? – insipidintegrator Nov 29 '23 at 08:55
  • @RiverUzoma This seems to be the crux of the problem. I don't think the problem can be answered without knowing what best of 3 means. – Stef Nov 29 '23 at 08:57
  • @insipidintegrator I think it is more like taking turns. Like James shoot then John shoots especially since he said that they score or they miss. – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 08:58
  • So they'll play the 3rd game even if John is 2-0 up? – insipidintegrator Nov 29 '23 at 08:59
  • @Stef Let me ask someone just to be sure then. – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 08:59
  • @insipidintegrator So, my friend said he ignore the "best of 3 part" and just took it as they each played 3 rounds where in 1 round, James shoots once and John shoots once. Apparently, that is what almost everyone in our class' WhatsApp chat is interpreting it as, because it doesn't make sense any other way. – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 09:11
  • @Stef So, my friend said he ignore the "best of 3 part" and just took it as they each played 3 rounds where in 1 round, James shoots once and John shoots once. Apparently, that is what almost everyone in our class' WhatsApp chat is interpreting it as, because it doesn't make sense any other way. – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 09:12
  • @RiverUzoma That makes sense (although it can easily result in a draw, which kinda defeats the usual purpose of "best of 3"). So with this interpretation, $4^3$ is correct for the first question, and the second question becomes much easier. You don't need to care about all these "they both fail" or "James scores, John fails" scenarios anymore. You just need to count of many penalties they each shot, and multiply that number by 60% for John and 70% for James. – Stef Nov 29 '23 at 09:14
  • @Stef So 100 games means 100 shots per brother. Multiplying that by 60% and 70% means I can expect that James scored 70 goals and John scored 60 goals making it 130 goals scored from the 200 total shots they had right? – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 09:22
  • @RiverUzoma You said they get 3 shots each per saturday. So 100 saturdays is 300 shots per player. – Stef Nov 29 '23 at 09:24
  • @Stef Oh. Thank you. I forgot about that. so that will make the expected value be 390 out of 600. That makes a lot of sense. – River Uzoma Nov 29 '23 at 09:30
  • @RiverUzoma Yes. And the mathematical justification is that expectation is linear. Every shot gives James an expected $0.70$ point, and so $n$ shots give James an expected $0.70 \times n$ points. – Stef Nov 29 '23 at 09:35

2 Answers2

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Bernoulli Trials

Suppose you carry out a coin toss to settle who gets the ball at the start of a soccer game. The coin, unbeknownst to you, is biased, with $P(H) = p$, where $p$ is not necessarily $\dfrac12$. Then, the probability that heads comes up is $p$, and that of tails coming up is $1-p$. Say $p=0.3$, then $P(H) = 0.3$ and $P(T) = 0.7$. Suppose you believe your lucky side is heads, so you call heads every time. From your perspective, the event "Heads" is a success, while "Tails" is a failure.

Such kinds of random experiments, which have only two kinds of possible outcomes, one described as a success (which has a probability $p$) and the other a failure, are called Bernoulli Trials.

Binomial Distribution

Suppose due to the low probability of Heads, the first toss gives Tails. Frustrated, you beg the referee to toss the coin $100$ times, thinking that the Heads and Tails will even out due to the large number of tosses (You don't know that the coin is biased!).

Let $X$ denote the number of successes in $n$ tosses. Then, the probability that $X=k$, is the probability that exactly $k$ Heads turn up in $n$ tosses.

To find this, we can choose any $k$ of the $n$ tosses in $\displaystyle\binom nk$ ways. Then the probability that they return Heads is $p^k$ and the probability that the rest return Tails is $(1-p)^{n-k}$. Hence the probability that $X=k$ is $$P(X=k)= \binom nk p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$$ which is the binomial distribution, and here $X$ is said to be distributed binomially with parameters $n$ and $p$, or in short, $X\sim Bin(n, p)$.

The expectation of the random variable $X$ is defined as $$E(X) = \sum_{k=1}^n k\cdot P(X = k)$$ which, for $X\sim Bin(n, p)$, gives $$E(X) = \sum_{k=1}^n k\cdot \binom nk p^k(1-p)^{n-k} = np.$$ This is extremely intuitive, as if you toss a coin $n (=100)$ times with probability $p(=0.3)$ of getting Heads, then you should reasonably expect something near $np = 0.3\times 100 = 30$ Heads to turn up.

Solution to your question

To solve this, we MUST assume that the random variables $X_1$ (number of goals James scores) and $X_2$ (number of goals John scores) are independent, i.e. the number of goals scored by John doesn't affect James and vice-versa (come on, we can't possibly model psychological effects mathematically).

Then, since James gets 300 chances and scores $70\%$ of the time, $X_1 \sim Bin(300, 0.7)$. Similarly, since John gets 300 chances too but scores only $60\%$ of the time, we write $X_2\sim Bin(300, 0.6)$. Thus,

$$E(X_1) = 300\times 0.7 = 210$$ $$E(X_2) = 300\times 0.6 = 180$$ $$E(X_1 + X_2) = E(X_1) + E(X_2) = \color{red}{390}.$$

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The expectation of the score of a player called $X$ in $n$ independent games, each with $m$ possible outcomes $\{x_1,...,x_m\}$ is $$E(X)=n\sum_{k=0}^mx_kP(x=x_k).$$

We have $n=3\times100=300$ games and $m=2$. $$E(Je)=300(0\times0.3+1\times0.7)=210$$ $$E(Jo)=300(0\times0.4+1\times0.6)=180$$ $$E(Je+Jo)=E(Je)+E(Jo)=390.$$

Bob Dobbs
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