I am trying to understand what is meant by the following wording on page 297 of John Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds, the 2nd Edition:
"The key to constructing a potential function in Theorem 11.49 is that we can reach every point $x \in M$ by a definite path from $c$ to $x$, chosen to vary smoothly as $x$ varies. This is what fails in the case of the closed covector field $\omega$ on the punctured plane (Example 11.43): because of the hole, it is impossible to choose a smoothly varying family of paths starting at a fixed base point and reaching every point of the domain exactly once."
Theorem 11.49: If $U$ is a star-shaped open subset of $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ or $\mathbb{H}^{n}$, then every closed covector field on $U$ is exact.
In Example 11.43, the covector field is
$$ \omega = \frac{xdy - ydx}{x^{2} + y^{2}} $$
and the book demonstrates that integrating this over the unit cirlce gives $2\pi$. My understanding is (a bit informally) that path independence of a line integral is equivalent to the line integral over any loop being 0 which is the same as every loop being homotopic to a point, and this is what goes wrong. Is Lee saying there is another way to see what goes wrong? Or is this a different wording for what I just mentioned? Thanks in advance.