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This is exercise 3.7.1 from Introduction to Mathematical Statistics 6th edition by Hogg, Mckean, and Craig. The question is: Suppose $Y$ has a $\text{gamma} (\alpha, \beta)$ distribution. Let $X = e^{Y}$. Show that the pdf of $X$ is given by expression (3.7.4). Derive the mean and variance.

I have been able to use the pdf method of transformation to show that the pdf of $X$ is

$$ f(x) = \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} x^{-(1 + \beta)/\beta}(\ln x)^{\alpha - 1} $$

for $x> 1$ and $0$ elsewhere, which is expression (3.7.4) mentioned above. I have attempted to derive the mean using the definition of expected value. So we have

\begin{align} E(X) = \int^{\infty}_{1} x f(x)dx &= \int^{\infty}_{1} x \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} x^{-(1 + \beta)/\beta}(\ln x)^{\alpha - 1} dx \\ &= \int^{\infty}_{1} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} x^{-1/\beta}(\ln x)^{\alpha - 1} dx. \end{align}

I am not quite sure where to go from here but I thought maybe a change of variables where $u = \ln(x)$ and then $x = e^{u}$ and $dx = xdu$ so that we now have

$$ E(X) = \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} u^{\alpha - 1}e^{-u/\beta}xdu = x\int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} u^{\alpha - 1}e^{-u/\beta}du = x. $$

However, I have a feeling this is not correct, but I'm not sure.


Edit after comment from J.G.

$$ E(X) = \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} u^{\alpha - 1}e^{-u/\beta}xdu = \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} u^{\alpha - 1}e^{-u(1-\beta)/\beta}du $$

Now I am not sure how to proceed with evaluating this integral. It sort of resembles a gamma distribution.


I think we can evaluate the above integral using the fact that

$$ \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} e^{-x/\beta} x^{\alpha - 1} dx = 1 \implies \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-x/\beta} x^{\alpha - 1} dx = \Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}.$$

Therefore,

\begin{align} E(X) = \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} u^{\alpha - 1}e^{-u(1-\beta)/\beta}du &= \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}}\int^{\infty}_{0} u^{\alpha - 1}e^{-u(1-\beta)/\beta}du \\ &= \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} \left( \Gamma (\alpha) \left[ \frac{\beta}{1-\beta} \right]^{\alpha} \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha) \beta^{\alpha}} \left( \frac{\Gamma(\alpha)\beta^\alpha}{(1-\beta)^{\alpha}}\right) \\ &= (1-\beta)^{-\alpha}. \end{align}

I believe that is the correct answer for the $E(X)$, but it would be great to get some confirmation.

mmm3
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  • The factor of $x$ in the integrand of the integral defining $E(X)$ must be written as $e^u$, so$$E(X)=\frac{\beta^{-\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\int_0^\infty u^{\alpha-1}e^{-u(1/\beta-1)}du.$$ – J.G. Dec 08 '23 at 19:35
  • @J.G. You are correct. Thank you for pointing out that error! I have made an edit to the original question to reflect this change. Now I am unsure as to how to proceed with evaluating the integral. – mmm3 Dec 08 '23 at 19:53
  • You've correctly obtained $E(X)$. The variance is $E(X^2)-[E(X)]^2$. – J.G. Dec 08 '23 at 21:05
  • @J.G. Got it. Thanks! – mmm3 Dec 09 '23 at 02:56

0 Answers0