The algebraic proof is straightforward where we conclude that square of every real number is non-negative, but I can't see anything in the axioms to support that claim. Here is the idea I've had so far: proceed with algebraic manipulations (which follow directly from axioms) to arrive at $0 \leq (\frac{1}{2}x - \frac{1}{2}y)^2=(\frac{1}{2}x - \frac{1}{2}y) \cdot (\frac{1}{2}x - \frac{1}{2}y)$, then proceed with cases: $\begin{cases} i) \quad x \leq y \\ ii) \quad y \leq x \end{cases}$. For $i$) we have $\frac{1}{2}x - \frac{1}{2}y \leq 0 \space(*)$, here I had an idea to produce a $-z \cdot -z$ expression, where $z$ is $(*)$ and then use a fact we proved previously: $(-1)\cdot(-1)=1$, but I'm struggling to come up with a precise continuation. For $ii)$ I'm omitting the reasoning since it's pretty straightforward I believe.
Edit: $\mathbb R$ is a totally ordered field under relation $\leq$ + axiom of completeness, so hopefully this clarifies which axioms are provided.
In fact, if $z\ge0$, then $z^2\ge0$. Otherwise, $-z\ge0$ and $z^2=(-1)^2z^2=(-z)^2\ge 0$.
– Alma Arjuna Dec 16 '23 at 22:40