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Suppose $x$ is a random variable in $\mathbb{R}^d$ and $I$ is a $d\times d$ identity. What's the easiest way of showing that eigenvalues of the following matrix are real?

$$\left(E[xx']\otimes I + I\otimes E[xx']\right)^{-1} E[xx'\otimes xx']$$

This might be equivalent to showing that the $\Lambda,\Phi$, solution to generalized problem is real:

$$E[xx'\otimes xx'] \Phi = (E[xx']\otimes I + I\otimes E[xx'])\Phi \Lambda$$

Notebook

  • It's a product of two symmetric matrices, so it's not symmetric – Yaroslav Bulatov Dec 18 '23 at 21:26
  • Thanks, see also the last paragraph of https://math.stackexchange.com/q/113859 – user196574 Dec 18 '23 at 21:32
  • @user196574 Yes, there seems to be some confusion over whether "positive definite" requires symmetric. If you treat matrix as quadratic form, then it doesn't matter whether it's symmetric. If you treat it as linear operation, it matters. – Yaroslav Bulatov Dec 18 '23 at 21:41

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It suffices to note that all of your expectation matrices are symmetric and positive definite. Denote $P = \left(E[xx']\otimes I + I\otimes E[xx']\right), Q = E[xx' \otimes xx']$. The matrices $P,Q$ are symmetric positive definite. It follows that $P^{-1}Q$ is similar to the matrix $$ P^{1/2}(P^{-1}Q)P^{-1/2} = P^{-1/2}QP^{-1/2}. $$ This is a matrix of the form $M^TQM$ for a real matrix $M$. It follows that this matrix is positive semidefinite, and thus has real eigenvalues.

Ben Grossmann
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