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I have the following problem:

  1. f(x) is a polynomial function.
  2. Prove that the equation: g(x)=tan(x)-f(x) has a root (so g(x) = 0).

I considered the limitations of tan, and tried to get some values to apply the intermediate value theorem but the values do not have opposite signs.

g(-π/4) = -1 - f(-π/4)

g(π/4) = -1 - f(π/4)

g(0) = -f(0)

Am I missing something with what I've found? or my route is wrong?

2 Answers2

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Restrict your function $g(x)$ in the interval $(-\pi/2, \pi/2)$. Since f is a polynomial hence continuous and hence between $[-M, M]$ for some $M >0$ within the interval $[-\pi/2, \pi/2]$. But $\tan(x) \to \pm \infty$ as $x \to \pm \pi/2$. So you see as you go from $x = -\pi/2$ to $x=\pi/2$ your function $g$ goes from $-\infty$ to $\infty$. By intermediate value theorem (since $g$ is continuous), you have a root of $g$ in $(-\pi/2, \pi/2)$.

It in fact proves $g$ must have an infinite number of roots, at least one in each interval of the form $((2n-1)\pi/2, (2n+1)\pi/2)$ for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$.

Gonçalo
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  • This is a correct answer. It's good that you want to help here. That said, please don't hurry to answer questions so quickly. The comments show that the OP found the answer themselves based on a hint. – Ethan Bolker Dec 22 '23 at 22:35
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Draw a picture. The function $\tan x$ goes from $-\infty$ to $+\infty$ on the interval $(-\pi/2,\pi/2)$. Try to draw the graph of a continuous function on the same interval that doesn't cross $y=\tan x$. By continuity, you'll have to stay above or below the graph of tangent, and your function will have an asymptote at one of $x=\pm\pi/2$. A polynomial can't have this behaviour as it will be continuous on the closed interval $[-\pi/2,\pi/2]$.

Now take the above and try to turn it into something more rigorous. You can use the intermediate value theorem on $p(x)-\tan x$ for values of $x$ near $\pm\pi/2$. E.g. $p(\pi/2-\epsilon)$ and $p(-\pi/2+\epsilon)$ will be close to the values of $p(\pm\pi/2)$ for a polynomial $p$, whereas values of tangent can be made arbitrarily large (positive and negative), so the difference will take on opposite signs.

yoyo
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  • Thanks. Whenever I was taking a value really close to π/2, like x=89.99, I could think of an f(x) that would counter it and got stuck. Didn't think I could use ∞ here. Once I got the hint from Jean-Claude, I immediately solved it. Your explanation just made it clearer. – Math Horse Dec 23 '23 at 00:26