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I am writing to seek clarification on a specific aspect of Niven's proof, as presented in the Wikipedia article. I have attached an image for your reference.

My inquiry pertains to the value of and its behavior when n>k. I am particularly interested in understanding how the coefficient becomes zero in this scenario, and conversely, how it is expressed as in the case.

As a newcomer to this field and possessing a limited reputation, I would greatly appreciate a detailed explanation to enhance my understanding.enter image description here

Akash
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  • Are you asking about the coefficient of $x^k$ in $f(x)$ being zero for $k < n$? This is visible from $x^n$ being a factor of $f(x)$, therefore $c_k = 0$ for all $k < n$. – Torin Jan 03 '24 at 18:23
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    Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking. – Community Jan 03 '24 at 18:29

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