I had this problem on an assignment a while ago, but I don't quite understand the formulation of the problem nor the purpose:
Let $f : [a,b]→\mathbb{R}$ be a function that admits a derivative (not necessarily finite!) at any point of $[a,b]$. Prove that there exists $x_0 \in [a,b]$ such that: $|\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}|\leq |f'(x_0)|$
The original solution was a bit convoluted, and was by constructing some nested intervals, but can't we just say that if the derivative is infinite at some point then we're done, otherwise $f$ is differentiable and we're done by Lagrange's mean theorem? What's wrong with this?