Since $\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 = 0$ and $\lim_{x \to 0} \log(\lvert x \rvert) = - \infty$, we conclude that
$$
\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2}{\log(\lvert x \rvert)} = 0.
$$
Additionaly, because $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}, x \mapsto \sqrt[3]{x}$ is continuous, we deduce that
$$
\lim_{x \to 0} \sqrt[3]{\frac{x^2}{\log{\lvert x \rvert}}} = 0.
$$
In general, we have the following.
Proposition. Let $X$ be a non-empty subset of $\mathbb{R}$, let $f, g \colon X \to \mathbb{R}$ be two functions, and let $x_0$ be a limit point of $X$. If $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = 0$ and $\lim_{x \to x_0} g(x) = + \infty$, then
$$
\lim_{x \to x_0} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 0.
$$
Proof. Let $\varepsilon$ be an arbitrary positive real number. Since $\lim_{x \to x_0} g(x) = + \infty$, there exists some $\delta_1 > 0$ such that $\lvert g(x) \rvert > 1$, for all $x \in X$ with $0 < \lvert x - x_0 \rvert < \delta_1$. Moreover, given that $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = 0$, there exits some $\delta_2 > 0$ such that $\lvert f(x) \rvert < \varepsilon$, for all $x \in X$ with $0 < \lvert x - x_0 \rvert < \delta_2$. Take $\delta := \min\{\delta_1,\delta_2\} > 0$ and let $x$ be an arbitrary point of $X$ such that $0 < \lvert x - x_0 \rvert < \delta$. On one hand, we have that $0 < \lvert x - x_0 \rvert < \delta_1$, which means that $\lvert g(x) \rvert > 1$. On the other hand, we know that $0 < \lvert x - x_0 \rvert < \delta_2$, which implies that $\lvert f(x) \rvert < \varepsilon$. Note that $\frac{1}{\lvert g(x) \rvert} < 1$ (and it makes sense to talk about $\frac{1}{\lvert g(x) \rvert}$ [why?]). Putting all this together we conclude $\left\lvert \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} \right\rvert = \frac{\lvert f(x) \rvert}{\lvert g(x) \rvert} < \varepsilon$. Therefore, $\lim_{x \to x_0} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 0$. $\square$
An analogous argument allows you to prove this statement for the case $\lim_{x \to x_0} g(x) = - \infty$ or $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = L$, for any real number $L$.