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Let $p : E \rightarrow B$ be a cover s.t. Aut(E) acts transitively on $p^{-1}(b)$ for some fix $b \in B$. Then $E/Aut(E)$ is homeomorphic to $B$ where $Aut(E) \subset Cov(E,E)$. The problem is that I don't even understand how the map $~E/Aut(E) \to B~$ is defined, would someone please give me this definition?

Apparently it is "clear" but I fail to see this.

nmasanta
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2 Answers2

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Let's remove this question from the list of unanswered questions by up-voting this community wiki answer stating that Agusti Roig's comment above contains the right answer.

Rasmus
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Let's honor Rasmus' creative handling of the software restrictions by downvoting this self-referential community wiki answer.

Who
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  • Funny, for a moment I thought you got this idea from http://mathoverflow.net/questions/39626/is-there-a-general-setting-for-self-reference but apparently that post turned up later. – Rasmus Sep 22 '10 at 17:31