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Let $T:E\rightarrow E$ be a continuous linear map between Banach spaces. We define $T^*:E^*\rightarrow E^*$ by $T^*(e^*)(e)=e^*(T(e))$. Under these conditions prove that the resolvent set $\rho(T)=\{\lambda \:| T-\lambda I \: \text{ is invertible}\}$ satisfies $\rho(T)=\rho(T^*)$.

That $\rho(T)\subseteq \rho(T^*)$ is straightforward from the definition.

Indeed, if $T-\lambda I $ is invertible, then in particular it is surjective and this implies that:

$$f_1((T-\lambda)(x))=f_2((T-\lambda)(x))\: \forall x\in E\Rightarrow f_1=f_2$$

But this implies $T^*-\lambda I^*$ is injective. For surjectivity it is enough to consider $g=f\circ (T-\lambda I)^{-1}\in E^*$, because $(T^*-\lambda I^*)(g)=f$.

For the other inclusion I am having trouble. Suppose we have $\lambda \in \rho(T^*)$, then $T^*-\lambda I^*$ is invertible.

Take $x\in \ker(T-\lambda I)$, then $(T-\lambda I)(x)=0$ and so $(T^*-\lambda I^*)(f)(x)=0$ for all $f\in E^*$. But because of surjectivity, this means $f(x)=0$ for all $f\in E^*$ and so by Hahn Banach, $\lVert x \rVert=0$ which implies $x=0$. Hence, $T-\lambda I$ is injective.

So far I haven't been able to prove $T-\lambda I$ is surjective. I wanted to suppose by way of contradiction $E\setminus (T-\lambda I)(E)\not=\emptyset$ and build a nonzero function which is zero in $(T-\lambda I)(E)$, but I cannot use geometric Hahn-Banach, because $(T-\lambda I)(E)$ is not necessarily closed.

Kadmos
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    I doubt this is true as it seems to come close to saying $X \simeq X^$ where $X^$ is the dual space, which is not in general true. (I have only done undergraduate courses on functional analysis so take my opinion with a grain of salt) – Poseidaan Jan 30 '24 at 14:28
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    @geetha290krm, I think it holds for matrices, right? If $T=[a_{ij}]$, we have $T^(e_j^)(\sum_i \alpha_i e_i)=e_j^(\sum_i \alpha_i T(e_i))=\sum_i a_{ji} \alpha_i =\sum_i a_{ji} e_i^(\sum_k \alpha_k e_k)$. So in the canonical dual base $T^=[a_{ij}]^T=[a_{j i}]$. So $\det(T-\lambda I)=\det((T-\lambda I)^T)=\det (T^-\lambda I^)$ and it seems $\rho(T)=\rho(T^)$. – Kadmos Jan 30 '24 at 15:21
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    The range of $T - \lambda$ is in fact closed as a consequence of the closed range theorem. – BabyWienerSpace Jan 30 '24 at 18:55
  • I am aware of the closed graph theorem. What is this closed range theorem you mention, @BabyWienerSpace? – Kadmos Jan 30 '24 at 20:15
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    The easier direction can be proved easier, basing on $(AB)^=B^A^.$ Thus if $AB=BA=I_X$ then $B^A^=A^B^=I_{X^}.$ – Ryszard Szwarc Jan 30 '24 at 20:21
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    The closed range theorem states that a bounded linear operator has closed range w.r.t. to norm topology if and only if its adjoint has closed range w.r.t. to dual norm topology. – BabyWienerSpace Jan 30 '24 at 20:35
  • @BabyWienerSpace, that really is enough to finish this proof! I will study the proof of this Theorem. Thanks! – Kadmos Jan 30 '24 at 20:53
  • Isn't $(T-\lambda I)^{}=T^{}-\overline {\lambda} I$? Everyone on this page seems to think that $(T-\lambda I)^{}=T^{}-\lambda I$. – geetha290krm Feb 17 '24 at 12:24
  • P. 186 of Functional Analysis, Vol I by Reed an Simon mentions the two definitions of adjont and makes a clear distinction between them by using different notations. My confusion here was the result of using the symbol $T^{}$. If we follow Reed and Simon we should write $T'$ insted of $T^{}$. – geetha290krm Feb 18 '24 at 06:08
  • @geetha290krm, so it still holds if it is a Banach space over $\mathbb{K}$, right? $\mathbb{K}$ could be $\mathbb{C}$. I have removed the edit. – Kadmos Feb 18 '24 at 10:05

2 Answers2

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Boils down to : $T$ is invertible if and only if $T^{*}$ is. L to R is immediate, so let's sketch R to L.


  1. Assume $T^{*}$ is injective. Let's show that $T$ has dense image.

For let $\psi\in F^{*}$ zero on $\operatorname{Im} T$, that is $\psi(T e)=0$ for all $e \in E$. Then $T^{*}(\psi) e = 0$ for all $e$ and this means $T^(\psi) = 0$. We conclude $\psi =0$. Again, by Hahn-Banach, this means $\operatorname{Im} T$ is dense in $F$.


  1. Assume $T^{*}$ surjective. Let us show that $\|T e\| \ge c \cdot \|e\|$ for some $c>0$.

Indeed we have

$$\|T e\| = \sup_{\psi\ne 0} \frac{|\psi( T e)|}{\|\psi\|}= \frac{|T^*(\psi)e|}{\|\psi\|}\ge c \cdot \frac{|T^*(\psi)e|}{\|T^* \psi\|} $$

Now use $T^{*}$ surjective, so instead of $T^{*} \psi$ can be any non-zero $\phi\in E^*$.


Combining 1. and 2. we get that $T$ is invertible ( take $Te_n \to f$, then use 2. and get $e_n$ Cauchy, so convergent, since $E$ Banach, $\&$c)

orangeskid
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  • Isn't $(T-\lambda I)^{}=T^{}-\overline {\lambda} I$? Everyone on this page seems to think that $(T-\lambda I)^{}=T^{}-\lambda I$. – geetha290krm Feb 17 '24 at 12:24
  • Why is your first sentence correct? – geetha290krm Feb 17 '24 at 23:12
  • I don't understand I also think that the general audience would be benefitted because the adjoint of $T-\lambda I$ is not $T^{*}-\lambda I$. We have a real Banach space but the specrtum is not necessarily a subset of the real line, right? – geetha290krm Feb 18 '24 at 00:16
  • @geetha290krm: I see... there are several ways to define the adjoint ( or the dual). There is the notion of dual of a normed space ( with an induced norm). It consists of all the linear functionals on it. Also, there exists the adjoint ( or dual) of a linear map between (pre)Hilbert spaces. I was thinking about the first scenario. Now, they are related, modulo Riesz Lemma. But we are dealing with Banach spaces, a bit more general. If you are taking about Hilbert spaces, then you are correct. If we do the Banach space case, then it's customary without conjugate, and a bit more involved – orangeskid Feb 18 '24 at 00:25
  • P. 186 of Functional Analysis, Vol I by Reed an Simon mentions the two definitions of adjont and makes a clear distinction between them by using different notations. My confusion here was the result of using the symbol $T^{}$. If we follow Reed and Simon we should write $T'$ insted of $T^{}$. – geetha290krm Feb 18 '24 at 06:07
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Take $\lambda \in \rho(T^*)$. Then $T^*-\lambda I^*$ is invertible and $T-\lambda I$ is injective by the original post. It suffices to prove that $T-\lambda I$ is surjective to conclude $\lambda \in \rho(T)$. Let us prove surjectivity:

$(T-\lambda I)(E)$ is dense in $E$.

Indeed, if $e\in E\setminus \overline{(T-\lambda I)(E)}$, by geometric Hahn Banach, we have $f\in E^*$ such that $f(e)>0$ and $f|_{(T-\lambda I)(E)}=0$. Then, $(T^*-\lambda I^*)(f)=0$ and this contradicts the injectivity of $T^*-\lambda I^*$.

$(T-\lambda I)(E)$ is closed and hence $T-\lambda I$ is surjective.

$T^*-\lambda I^*$ is open, so $cB_{E^*}\subseteq (T^*-\lambda I^*)(B_{E^*}) $, but this implies:

$$ \lVert (T-\lambda I)(x)\rVert=\sup_{f\in B_E^*}|f\circ (T-\lambda I)(x)|=\sup_{f\in B_{E^*}}|(T-\lambda I)^*(f)(x)|\geq \sup_{g\in c B_{E}^* } |g(x)|=c\lVert x \rVert$$

If $(T-\lambda I)(x_n)\rightarrow y$, then the above inequality shows $x_n$ is Cauchy and so $x_n\rightarrow x$. This in turn implies by continuity that $(T-\lambda I)(x)=y$ and so $(T-\lambda I)(E)$ is closed!

Kadmos
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    Isn't $(T-\lambda I)^{}=T^{}-\overline {\lambda} I$? Everyone on this page seems to think that $(T-\lambda I)^{}=T^{}-\lambda I$. – geetha290krm Feb 17 '24 at 12:24