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I know that the following question can be resolved using derivatives but nonetheless, I would like to hear a more fluid and lucid approach. Any hand waving explanation and approximations are welcome.

The question is:-

Prove that there exists a linear part of the function $f($x$)$ $=$ $\frac{1}{\sqrt{(x^2+1)^3}}$ at x= $-1/2$ and x=$1/2$

Now initially I thought, we could use the binomial expression to expand the quantity, then I would find the quantity around the said $x$ values and pray to almighty that it would resemble a linear function. But could get nowhere. Thanks in Advance!!!

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Let $\varepsilon=\pm1$.

$$\begin{align}f\left(\frac\varepsilon2+h\right)&=\left(\left(\frac\varepsilon2+h\right)^2+1\right)^{-3/2}\\ &=\left(\frac54+\varepsilon h+h^2\right)^{-3/2}\\ &=\left(\frac54\right)^{-3/2}\left(1+\frac{4\varepsilon}5h+\frac45h^2\right)^{-3/2}\\ &=\left(\frac54\right)^{-3/2}\left(1-\frac32\left(\frac{4\varepsilon}5h+\frac45h^2\right)+\frac{\left(-\frac32\right)\left(-\frac52\right)}2\left(\frac{4\varepsilon}5h\right)^2+o(h^2)\right)\\ &=\left(\frac54\right)^{-3/2}\left(1-\frac{6\varepsilon}5h+o(h^2)\right). \end{align} $$

Anne Bauval
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