This is exercise 3.20, (ii) of Atiyah & Macdonald. $f^*$ is the induced map on $\operatorname{Spec}$ of $f: A \to B$, a ring homomorphism.
I have seen a counterexample on MathSE, stating that $k[t^2,t^3] \subset k[t]$ is one. But I cannot seem to understand why this is a counterexample. In this case $f$ must be the inclusion $k[t^2, t^3] \to k[t]$. How is the induced map $f^*$ injective in the first place? Also, how could I know about the prime ideals of $k[t]$ when I don't even know what $k$ is?
I have made this a separate question rather than a comment, since the original post is quite old. I would appreciate both hints or full descrpitions.
EDIT I have just realized that if $k$ is assumed to be algebraically closed, then the question becomes rather trivial. I am not deleting this post for future reference.