If $x$ and $y$ are (non-constant) functions of $z$, is it in general true that $\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\frac{dy}{dz}}{\frac{dx}{dz}}$?
If it's not true, can you please provide a counterexample, and if it's true, how would we prove that?
Thanks!
If $x$ and $y$ are (non-constant) functions of $z$, is it in general true that $\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\frac{dy}{dz}}{\frac{dx}{dz}}$?
If it's not true, can you please provide a counterexample, and if it's true, how would we prove that?
Thanks!
Assume $x,y,z$ differentiable functions and $$ \frac{dx}{dz}(z(p)) \ne 0 $$ In a neightbourhood of $z(p)$ (otherwise the formula does not make sense, as you are dividing by $0$) $$ \frac{dy}{dx}(p)=\frac{dy}{dz}(z(p))\frac{dz}{dx}(p) $$ for the chain rule.
If $\frac{dx}{dz}$ has constant sign in a neightbourhood $U$ of $z(p)$ the derivative $x(z)$ is strictly monotone in $U$. So it is invertible in $U$ and the formula holds.
But if the derivative is continuos and change sign in all the neightbourhoods of $z(p)$ then the derivative in $z(p)$ is zero, by Bolzano theorem. And this is against the hypothesis.
More generally, by Darboux theorem if the derivative change sign in any interval containing $z(p)$ than it has a zero in any such interval. As such if $$ \lim_{h \to z(p)} \frac{dx}{dz}(h) $$ exists the derivative need to have constant sign (and so the function is invertible) in a neightbourhood of $z(p)$