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I’m trying to understand the reason for the assertion on page 20 of Hestenes and Sobczyk’s “Clifford Algebra to Geometric Calculus” that

If $B$ is a simple $s$-vector, then $B\cdot A$ [where $A$ is a simple $n$-vector] is simple.

According to page 4, a multivector $A_r$ is called a simple $r$-vector iff it can be factored into a product of $r$ anticommuting vectors $a_1, a_2,…, a_r$, that is

$$ A_r = a_1a_2…a_r,$$

where $a_ja_k = -a_ka_j$ for $j, k = 1, 2, …, r$, and $j\neq k$.

However, I can’t see how that is true even if $B$ were a simple $1$-vector $b=b_1+b_2+b_3$ and $A=a_1a_2a_3$ a simple $3$-vector with $b_i$ parallel $a_i$. In this case,

$$\begin{aligned}b\cdot A &= (b_1\cdot a_1)a_2a_3 - a_1(b_2\cdot a_2)a_3 + a_1a_2(b_3\cdot a_3) \\ &= (b_1\cdot a_1)a_2a_3 + a_1\left[a_2(b_3\cdot a_3) - (b_2\cdot a_2)a_3\right] \end{aligned}$$

and I can’t factor this further into a simple $2$-vector.

Rodrigo
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2 Answers2

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This is not a full answer, but instead a discussion of your example. I'd have to think further about how to prove the assertion, but somebody else may beat me to that.

Your bivector example, say, $B = b \cdot A$ can be factored into a pair of orthogonal vectors in a number of ways. This is always going to be possible in a 3D subspace like the one you have used for your example. One technique would be to form pairs of vectors by dotting the bivector with any non-zero vector in the plane spanned by basis formed by factors of $B$. For example:

$ \begin{aligned} v_1 &= B \cdot a_1 \\ v_2 &= B \cdot v_1 \end{aligned} $

both of these vectors lie in the plane and are perpendicular by construction ($v_1$ is proportional to the projection of $a_1$ onto $B$, but rotated 90 degrees, and $v_2$ proportional to a further 90 rotation of $v_1$.)

You can verify that $B \propto v_1 v_2$.

This is a bit hard to see with your example, as stated, but you can verify it computationally easily enough

Mathematica computational example.

I have a few other examples of this sort of factorization as a problem in chapter I (solutions are available at the end of chapter) in my book, a free PDF copy of which is available at Geometric Algebra for Electrical Engineers

Geometrically, the essentially 3D example you have posed can also be viewed in terms of duality. Specifically, a vector can be expressed as the dual of a bivector (a simple 2-vector) that in turn can be expressed as a product of two perpendicular vectors, as illustrated here:

three perpendicular vectors

We can write:

$b \propto v_1 v_2 I,\qquad b \cdot v_1 = b \cdot v_2 = v_1 \cdot v_2 = 0$

(i.e.: $b \propto v_1 \times v_2$), just as we can write

$T = a_1 a_2 a_3 \propto I$,

where $I$ is the unit pseudoscalar for the 3D subspace spanned by $a_1, a_2, a_3$.

Let

$b = \beta v_1 v_2 I$,

and

$T = \alpha I$,

leaving

$b \cdot T = (\beta v_1 v_2 I)(\alpha I) = -\alpha \beta v_1 v_2.$

We see explicitly, that $b \cdot T$ is simple, as it is proportional to the product of two orthogonal vectors.

Peeter Joot
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$ \newcommand\form[1]{\langle#1\rangle} \newcommand\lcontr{\mathbin\rfloor} $This can be proved by induction on grade, but instead I am going to give a "vector free" approach. Assume we have an $n$-dimensional vector space $V$ equipped with a nondegenerate metric which generates a geometric algebra. (When the metric is degenerate we can still make the arguments to follow work, but we have to do some shenanigans with the dual space $V^*$.)

First, notation: your inner product $\cdot$ can be defined on $s$- and $t$-vectors $A_s, B_t$ by $$ A_s\cdot B_t = \form{A_sB_t}_{|s-t|}. $$ However, the left contraction $$ A_s\lcontr B_t = \form{A_sB_t}_{t-s} $$ is more well behaved (where the grade projection is defined to be $0$ when $t-s$ is negative). For instance, for arbitrary multivectors $A, B, C$ we have $$ (A\wedge B)\lcontr C = A\lcontr(B\lcontr C),\quad (A\wedge B)*C = A*(B\lcontr C) $$ with $A*B = \form{AB}_0$ the scalar product. The second adjoint identity can be taken as a definition of the contraction when the metric is nondegenerate. In light of the first identity we make $\wedge$ tighter-binding than $\lcontr$ and make $\lcontr$ right-associative so that we may write $$ A\wedge B\lcontr C = A\lcontr B\lcontr C. $$

Crucially, contraction also satisfies the following dualities for any pseudoscalar $I$ $$ A\lcontr(BI) = (A\wedge B)I,\quad A\wedge(BI) = (A\lcontr B)I $$ This can be proved from the adjoint identity $$\begin{aligned} C*[A\lcontr(BI)] & = (C\wedge A)*(BI) = \form{(C\wedge A)BI}_0 = \form{(C\wedge A)B}_nI \\& = (C\wedge A\wedge B)I = \form{C(A\wedge B)I}_0 \\& = C*[(A\wedge B)I]. \end{aligned}$$ Since the scalar product is nondegenerate whenever the underlying metric is, this proves one of the dualities. The other is proved simply by replacing $I$ with $I^{-1}$ and $B$ with $BI$.

Now consider when $A, B$ are blades. $BI$ is a blade: we can find an orthogonal basis $e_1,\dotsc,e_n$ such that $$ B = be_ke_{k-1}\dotsb e_1,\quad I = e_1e_2\dotsb e_n $$ for some scalar $b$. Now by duality $$ A\lcontr B = [A\wedge(BI)]I^{-1}. $$ This is clealy a blade.


Here is a more geometric perspective.

First, a basic identity. Let $T : V \to V$ be linear. This map extends uniquely to an outermorphism on the exterior algebra $$ T(A\wedge B) = T(A)\wedge T(B). $$ If $a, b$ are vectors, then the adjoint $\bar T$ of $T$ is defined by $$ \bar T(a)*b = a*T(b). $$ You can find that the adjoint of the outermorphism is the outermorphism of the adjoint, so this equation extends to multivectors. Now consider that $$\begin{aligned} C*T(\bar T(A)\lcontr B) & = \bar T(C)*(\bar T(A)\lcontr B) = (\bar T(C)\wedge\bar T(A))*B \\& = \bar T(C\wedge A)*B = (C\wedge A)*T(B) \\& = C*(A\lcontr T(B)) \end{aligned}$$ and thus $$ T(\bar T(A)\lcontr B) = A\lcontr T(B). $$ I justify this in terms of subspaces further below.

Now consider the case that $B$ is a blade and $T = P_B$, the orthogonal projection onto the subspace of $V$ represented by $B$. It is easy to prove that $\bar P_B = P_B$; thus $$ P_B(P_B(A)\lcontr B) = A\lcontr B. \tag{$*$} $$ This proves two things:

  1. $A\lcontr B$ is in the image of $P_B$, so it represents a linear combination of subspaces of $B$.
  2. This means we can in fact remove the outer $P_B$ in ($*$) and obtain $$ A\lcontr B = P_B(A)\lcontr B. $$

Now suppose $A$ is also a blade. We already showed that $AI$ is a blade as well; geometrically, this corresponds to taking the orthogonal complement of $A$. It is easy to show that $$ A\lcontr I = AI. $$ But $B$ is a pseudoscalar for the subspace it represents, and $P_B(A)$ is blade contained in this subspace. Thus $$ A\lcontr B = P_B(A)\lcontr B $$ is a blade. In fact, this proves the following geometric interpretation of the contraction: if $[X]$ is the subspace represented by a blade $X$ then $$ [A\lcontr B] = \begin{cases} V &\text{if }\exists v \in [A].\: v\perp[B],\\ [A]^\perp\cap[B] &\text{otherwise}. \end{cases} $$ So the contraction is essentially relative orthogonalization. Note that $$ P_B([A])^\perp\cap B = [A]^\perp\cap B. $$


We can justify the adjoint equation $$ T(\bar T(A)\lcontr B) = A\lcontr T(B) $$ more geometrically. Consider a fixed vector $v$ and arbitrary $w \in T(v)^\perp$: $$ \bar T(v)\cdot w = 0 = v\cdot T(w). $$ What this is saying is that $\bar T$ is the unique map (up to scaling of some sort) such that $$ T(\bar T(v)^\perp) \subseteq v^\perp \quad\text{or equivalently}\quad \bar T(T(v)^\perp) \subseteq v^\perp. $$ If $S$ is a subspace then this generalizes to $$ T(\bar T(S)^\perp) \subseteq S^\perp $$ with equality when $T$ (and hence $\bar T$) are bijective. You can see this as follows: $$ T(\bar T(S)^\perp) = T(\bigcap_{v \in \bar T(S)}v^\perp) = T(\bigcap_{v \in S}\bar T(v)^\perp) \subseteq \bigcap_{v \in S}T(\bar T(v)^\perp) \subseteq \bigcap_{v \in S}v^\perp = S^\perp, $$ with equality in the case of bijectivity following from dimension counting. A direct consequence is the restriction to relative orthogonal complements $S^\perp\cap R$: $$ T(\bar T(S)^\perp\cap R) \subseteq S^\perp\cap T(R). $$ This is precisely the analog of $$ T(\bar T(A)\lcontr B) = A\lcontr T(B) $$ with $A$ playing the role of $S$ and $B$ the role of $R$.

  • How did you obtain the second duality equation? If I make the substitutions $B\rightarrow BI$ and $I\rightarrow I^{-1}$ I obtain that $BI \rightarrow (BI)I^{-1}=B$ and consequently the second duality “$A \wedge (BI) = (A\mathbin\rfloor B) I$” becomes $A\wedge B = (A\mathbin\rfloor (BI)I$, the RHS of which equals, by the first duality, only $((A\wedge B)I)I^{-1}=A\wedge B$. – Rodrigo Feb 26 '24 at 12:49
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    @Rodrigo For any $B'$ and pseudoscalar $I'$ we have by the first duality (the one I proved) $$A\mathbin\rfloor(B'I') = (A\wedge B')I'.$$ Substituting $B' = BI$ and $I' = I^{-1}$ then gives $$A\mathbin\rfloor(BII^{-1}) = (A\wedge(BI))I^{-1}$$ and we multiply by $I$ to get $$(A\mathbin\rfloor B)I = A\wedge(BI).$$ You can also prove this directly just like the first duality, but the most straightforward way seemed to involve the right contraction $$(A\mathbin\lfloor B)C = A(B\wedge C)$$ but I decided not to introduce it and to just stick with the left contraction. – Nicholas Todoroff Feb 26 '24 at 16:55