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My attempt at solving this goes $$z\lt w\Rightarrow z\bullet z\lt w\bullet w$$ since $z\lt w$ is logically equivalent to $x\lt y$ just with different symbols, then $$z\lt w \Rightarrow z\bullet x \lt w\bullet y$$ However, in the proof of the first theorem, I took for granted that $w\bullet z = z\bullet w$ which is not true in the second theorem. I am out of ideas, any help would be appreciated. Thank you!

  • Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3622005/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1329490/42969 – Martin R Feb 23 '24 at 18:26

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