I am reading Richard Sutton's textbook Reinforcement Learning, chapter $11.4$, and I am confused by his definition of the Projected Bellman Error.
He defines a norm on value functions $v: S \mapsto \mathbb{R}$ where $S$ is the set of states, as $$||v||_{\mu} = \sum_{s \in S} \mu(s) v(s)^2$$
Then assuming linear value functions for state vectors $x(s) \in \mathbb{R}^d$ given by $ v(s) = w^T x(s)$ for some vector $w \in \mathbb{R}^d$, a projection operation is defined for an arbitrary value function $v$ as
$$ \Pi v = \operatorname{argmin}_{w} ||v(s)-v_w(s)||^2$$
Further the Bellman Error at state $s$ for a value function $v_w$ from $v_\pi$ (value function given by policy $\pi$) as $$\overline{\delta_w}(s) = (\sum_{a} \pi(a|s) \sum_{(s', r)}p(s', r|s, a)[r+\gamma v_w(s')]) - v_w(s)$$ where $a$ is an action. The mean squared bellman error is defined as $\overline{BE}(w) = ||\overline{\delta_w}||^2_{\mu}$ (the norm of the Bellman Error vector).
Now I am trying to understand the definition of the Mean Squared Projected Bellman Error given by $$\overline{PBE}(w) = ||\Pi \overline{\delta_w}||^2_{\mu}$$
Here I am not sure how to interpret this. Is this then something like
$$\operatorname{argmin}_{w'} ||\overline{\delta_w} - v_{w'}||$$ for some other value function parametrized by $w'$, where I guess you can intepret the bellman error vector itself as a value function? I'm confused by this definition and am looking for a simple English interpretation.
Further the author states that with linear function approximation, there always exists an approximate value function (within the subspace of functions parametrized by $w$), with zero $\overline{PBE}$, the fixed $TD$ (temporal difference) point $w_{TD}$, where I am not sure why this is the case. Any insights much appreciated.