Question:
In general, $Z_t := \exp(\int_0^t \phi_s dBs - \frac{1}{2}\int_0^t\phi_s^2ds)$ is the exponential martingale. Is $Z_t := \exp(-\int_0^t \phi_s dBs - \frac{1}{2}\int_0^t\phi_s^2ds)$ also an exponential martingale?
Origin:
Let $(B_t)_{t \geq 0}$ be abrownian motion starting at $x>0$. Let $T_a := \inf\{t :B_t =a\}$. Compute
$$ E[exp(-\int_0^{T_a} \frac{1}{B_s^2}ds) | B_0 = x]$$ where $0 < a < x$.
The idea is to rewrite $exp(-\int_0^{T_a} \frac{1}{B_s^2}ds)$ into a martingale and use the optimal stopping theorem. Using Itô on $\ln(B_t)$ (and assuming $(B_0 \neq 0)$) yields
$$ \frac{B_0}{B_t}e^{-\int_0^{T_a} \frac{1}{B_s^2}ds} = e^{-\int_0^t \frac{1}{B_s}dBs -\frac{1}{2} \int_0^{T_a} \frac{1}{B_s^2}ds}$$
Now it would be very convenient if the right hand side was indeed the exponential martingale.