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I'm struggling to find if the following limit exists:

$\lim_{{(x,y) \to (0,0)}} \frac{x^2y^2}{x^2+y^4}$

Intuitively, I believe it does not, but every direction I approach it from ($y=x$, $y=x^2$,$y=0$, $x=0$ etc.) seems to provide the same limit of zero. Any help is very much appreciated, as well as any tips on finding a suitable direction to prove a limit doesn't exist.(Excluding the polar coordinate conversion method)

Layla16
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3 Answers3

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Notice that $$\frac{x^2y^2}{x^2+y^4} \leqslant \frac{x^2y^2}{x^2}=y^2$$ and hence the function is bounded near $(0,0)$ by $y^2$.

So, the limit is $0$.

Sayan Dutta
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  • Thank you for the answer, was your initial approach to the question to start bounding? I thought that since the highest power of the numerator was greater than that of the denominator the limit would not exist, however that seems to be wrong. What is your general approach to answering such questions? – Layla16 Mar 18 '24 at 20:18
  • @Layla16 I don't understand what you mean by the highest power of the numerator was greater than that of the denominator since the degree of both the polynomials in the numerator and the denominator is $4$. But, for your other question, I kinda knew about this problem... it's one of the first examples of a multivariable limit that exists... – Sayan Dutta Mar 18 '24 at 20:34
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There is an alternative but less evident method $$|xy^2|\le {1\over 2}(x^2+y^4)$$ Hence $${x^2y^2\over x^2+y^4}={|x|y^2\over x^2+y^4}|x|\le {1\over 2}|x|$$ Thus the limit is $0$ if $x\to 0.$ In other solutions the limit is $0$ if $y\to 0.$

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If in neighborhood of some point $a$ you have that $|f(x) - L| \leq g(x)$ and $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to 0} g(x) = 0$, you have that $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to a} f(x) =L$. In this case, as it was mentioned in the comments, we have that $$ \left| f(x,y) -0 \right|=\frac{x^2y^2}{x^2+y^4} \leq \frac{(x^2+y^4)y^2}{x^2+y^4} = y^2 \to 0, \quad \text{as } (x,y)\to (0,0)), $$

wich shows that the limit exists and is zero.

PierreCarre
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