Suppose $f\colon[0,a]\to \mathbb{R}$ with $a>0$, is monotonically increasing on $[0,a]$ and $f(x) \geq 0$ for all $x\in [0,a]$. Calculate $$\lim_{p\to +\infty} \int_{0}^{a}f(x)\frac{\sin(px)}{x}\,\mathrm dx.$$
My idea is as follows. Let $t=px$, then we get $$\int_{0}^{a}f(x)\frac{\sin(px)}{x}\,\mathrm dx= \int_{0}^{ap}f\left(\frac{t}{p}\right)\frac{\sin t}{t}\,\mathrm dt=\int_{0}^{+\infty}\chi_{[0,ap]}(t)f\left(\frac{t}{p}\right)\frac{\sin t}{t}dt. $$ If we change the order of limit and integral, I obtain $$\begin{align*}\lim_{p\to +\infty} \int_{0}^{a}f(x)\frac{\sin(px)}{x}\,\mathrm dx&=\lim_{p\to +\infty} \int_{0}^{+\infty}\chi_{[0,ap]}(t) f\left(\frac{t}{p}\right)\frac{\sin t}{t}\,\mathrm dt\\&=\int_{0}^{+\infty} \lim_{p\to +\infty} \chi_{[0,ap]}(t) f\left(\frac{t}{p}\right)\frac{\sin t}{t}\,\mathrm dt\\&=\int_{0}^{+\infty}f(0^+)\frac{\sin t}{t}dt=\frac{\pi}{2}f(0^+).\end{align*}$$ But I can't explain why we can change the order there. Can I use the Lebesgue Dominated Convergence theorem? Or perhaps use other methods to solve this question?