Unless all the roots are the same, it's impossible to calculate $\sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^{k-1}y_k$ because the roots are indistinguishable, but the value of the expression can be changed by permutation of roots. So the question boils down to whether $y_1 = y_2 = .. =y_n$. Consider the following expression
$$\sum_{1\leq i< j \leq n}(y_i-y_j)^2=(n-1)\sum_{i=1}^n{y^2_i}-2\sum_{1\leq i< j\leq n}y_iy_j$$
Since $\sum_{0\leq i< j \leq n}(y_i-y_j)^2 \geq 0$, therefore $\sum_{i=1}^n{y^2_i}\geq \dfrac{2}{n-1}\sum_{1\leq i< j \leq n}y_iy_j $.
We have
$$\begin{align}
(\sum_{i=1}^n{y_i})^2&=\sum_{i=1}^n{y^2_i}\;+2\sum_{1\leq i< j\leq n}y_iy_j\\
&\geq \frac{2n}{n-1} \sum_{1\leq i< j\leq n}y_iy_j
\end{align}
$$
On the other hand, $(\sum_{i=1}^n{y_i})^2 = 4n^2 = 2n(2n(n-1))=\dfrac{2n}{n-1} \sum_{1\leq i< j\leq n}y_iy_j$. Therefore $\sum_{1\leq i< j \leq n}(y_i-y_j)^2 = 0$ hence $y_i =y_j$ for $1\leq i< j \leq n$. In other words $y_1=y_2=..=y_n$
It follows straightforwardly that $y_i=2$ and $\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{k-1}y_k = 2(1-(-1)^n)$