Let $C$ be a category. Denote by $Ar(C)$ the following category: an object in $Ar(C)$ is a morphism $X_1 \rightarrow X_2$ in $C$. A morphism in $Ar(C)$ from $X_1 \rightarrow X_2$ to $Y_1 \rightarrow Y_2$ is a commutative diagram.
1) Show that $Ar(C)$ is a category.
2) Show that $F:Ar(Ab) \rightarrow Ar(Ab)$ with $F(X_1 \rightarrow X_2) = (\mathrm{ker}(f) \rightarrow X_1)$ defines a functor.
1) If $f,g$ are objects, $\mathrm{Hom}(f,g)$ is basically a pair of morphisms $(\varphi,\gamma)$ such that $g \varphi=\gamma f$. Let $(\varphi,\gamma) \in \mathrm{Hom}(f,g)$ and $(\gamma',\chi) \in \mathrm{Hom}(g,h)$. I'm unsure what needs to be done with composition. We need to be able to compose $((\varphi,\gamma),(\gamma',\chi))$ so that it lies in $\mathrm{Hom}(f,h)$ and is associative. Define $(\gamma',\chi) \circ (\varphi,\gamma)=(\gamma' \varphi,\chi \gamma)$. This is associative, but I don't know if it's such that $h \gamma' \varphi = \chi \gamma f$? Certainly they're both maps $X_1 \rightarrow Z_2$ ($h:Z_1 \rightarrow Z_2$), and I don't know how to convince myself whether it is or not?
Secondly for this question, Rotman writes of categories:
for each object $A$, there is an identity morphism $1_A \in \mathrm{Hom}(A,B)$ such that $f1_A=f$ and $1_B f=f$ for all $f:A \rightarrow B$.
This confuses me. Let $f:X_1 \rightarrow X_2$, $g: Y_1 \rightarrow Y_2$ and $(\varphi,\gamma) \in \mathrm{Hom}(f,g)$. So I have to show that there is $1_f=(\alpha,\beta)\in \mathrm{Hom}(f,f)$ such that $(\varphi,\gamma)(\alpha,\beta)=(\varphi \alpha,\gamma \beta)=(\varphi,\gamma)$ and $1_g (\varphi,\gamma)=(\varphi,\gamma)$. Well, letting $\alpha$ be the identity on $X_1$ and so forth seems to do the trick, but I don't understand, from Rotman, why $1_B$, or in my case $1_g$, would have to exist. Seems more reasonable to show that both exist. Perhaps that's just a minor issue...
2) I'm not sure here how the functor works on morphisms. Let $(\varphi,\gamma) \in \mathrm{Hom}(f,g)$. We must have $F(\varphi,\gamma):F(f) \rightarrow F(g)$, or in words, $(\varphi,\gamma)$ must be mapped to a pair making $\mathrm{ker}(f) \rightarrow X_1$ and $\mathrm{ker}(g) \rightarrow Y_1$ commute. I see two ways here; either introduce some map $\mathrm{ker}(f) \rightarrow \mathrm{ker}(g)$ and restrict $\varphi$ somehow, neither of which I'd have a clue on how to do, or look at how $F$ works on $\varphi,\gamma$ separately. In the latter case, $F(\varphi):\mathrm{ker}(\varphi) \rightarrow X_1$ and $F(\gamma):\mathrm{ker}(\gamma) \rightarrow X_2$. The first might make sense, but $F(\gamma)$ makes no sense to me in trying to make the new square diagram commute. Hints on how to show that $F$ is a functor?